Exam 500561RR – Crafting a Strategy

Question 1.
Which of the following actions is something a company should consider when crafting an environmental-sustainability strategy?
A. Working to provide for the longevity of natural resources
B. Investing in sustainable technologies only if the country in which the company operates supports these technologies
C. Making contributions to the Global Environmental Council that are distributed on a competitive basis
D. Prioritizing operations in ecological support systems that support the greatest business growth

Question 2
Diversification should be considered when a company
A. is under the gun to create a more attractive and cost-efficient value chain.
B. has run out of ways to achieve a distinctive competence in its present business.
C. begins to encounter diminishing growth prospects in its mainstay business.
D. lacks sustainable competitive advantage in its present business.

Question 3
Which one of the following is a key element of integrated social-contracts theory?
A. Integrated social-contracts theory rejects the slippery slope of ethical relativism and embraces ethical universalism.
B. Universal ethical norms always take precedence over local ethical norms.
C. Ethical principles at the country level outweigh universal principles.
D. Bribes and kickbacks aren't considered part of the theory since they aren't universally banned.

4. To create value for shareholders via diversification, a company must
A. diversify into businesses that can perform better under a single corporate umbrella than they could perform operating as independent, stand-alone businesses.
B. diversify into industries that are growing rapidly.
C. get into new businesses that are profitable.
D. spread its business risk across various industries by only acquiring firms that are strong competitors in their respective industries.

5. The advantages of using an export strategy to build a customer base in foreign markets include
A. minimizing shipping costs and the effects of fluctuating exchange rates.
B. minimizing risk and capital requirements.
C. being cheaper and more cost effective than licensing and franchising.
D. being cheaper and more cost effective than a multicountry strategy.

6. In which of the following cases are late-mover advantages (or first-mover disadvantages) not likely to arise?
A. when opportunities exist for a blue-ocean strategy to invent a new industry or distinctive market segment that creates altogether new demand
B. when the costs of pioneering are much higher than being a follower and only negligible learning/experience benefits accrue to the pioneer
C. when the marketplace is skeptical about the benefits of a new technology or product being pioneered by a first-mover
D. when the pioneer's products are somewhat primitive and are easily bested by late movers

7. The definition of business ethics is
A. developing a consensus among companies worldwide as to what ethical principles businesses should be expected to follow in their operations.
B. the application of general ethical principles to the actions and decisions of companies and the conduct of the workforce.
C. developing a special set of ethical standards for businesses to observe in conducting their affairs.
D.ethical behavior expectations of company personnel in the course of doing their jobs.

8. It becomes particularly urgent for a company to consider diversification when there are
A. opportunities to lower costs by entering closely related businesses.
B. diminishing market opportunities and stagnating sales in its principal business.
C. opportunities to leverage existing competencies and capabilities by expanding into businesses where these same resources are key success factors and valuable competitive assets.
D. opportunities to transfer a powerful and well-respected brand name to the products of other businesses and thereby increase the sales and profits of these newly entered businesses.

9. The chief difference between a low-cost provider strategy and a focused low-cost strategy is
A. the size of the buyer group to which a company is trying to appeal.
B. the type of value chain being used to achieve a low-cost competitive advantage.
C. whether the product is strongly differentiated or weakly differentiated from rivals.
D. the degree of bargaining power that buyers have.

10. Which of the following is the best example of related diversification?
A. A PC producer diversifying into producing its own brands of MP3 players and LCD TVs.
B. A manufacturer of canoes diversifying into the production of tennis rackets.
C. A beer brewer acquiring a maker of aluminum cans.
D. A producer of golf clubs and golf bags acquiring a maker of digital cameras.

11. How do ethical principles apply to businesses?
A. They chiefly deal with the actions and behaviors required to operate companies in a socially responsible manner.
B. They're generally less stringent than the ethical principles for society at large.
C. They chiefly deal with the rules each company's top management and board of directors make about \”what is right\” and \”what is wrong.\”
D. They're not materially different from ethical principles in general.

12. Multidomestic competition is best characterized as a situation in which
A. there are extensive trade restrictions, sharply fluctuating exchange rates, and high-tariff barriers in many country markets that work against the formation of a true world market.
B. the competitive arena among rival companies involves several neighboring countries rather than either a single country or the world market as a whole.
C. competition is mainly among the domestic companies of a few neighboring countries (five countries at most).
D. there's no international or global market, just a collection of mostly self-contained country markets.

13. Market size and growth rates in different countries can be influenced positively or negatively by
A. the ability of management to tailor a strategy to take into consideration differences among country markets.
B. which countries have the weakest foreign rivals.
C. differing population sizes, cultures, income levels, infrastructure, and distribution networks among countries.
D. competitive rivalry that is only moderate in some countries.

14. _______ is one of the five generic types of competitive strategy a company is following when it offers a better tasting product at a high premium.
A. Broad differentiation
B. Market-share dominator
C. Focused low-cost provider
D. Best-cost provider

15. A focused low-cost strategy seeks to achieve competitive advantage by
A. outmatching competitors in offering niche members an absolute rock-bottom price.
B. performing the primary value-chain activities at a lower cost per unit than can the industry's low-cost leaders.
C. serving buyers in the target market niche at a lower cost and lower price than rivals.
D. dominating more market niches in the industry via a lower cost and a lower price than any other rival.

16. Multinational companies that forbid the payment of bribes and kickbacks in their codes of ethical conduct and that are serious about enforcing this prohibition
A. are generally advocates of the ethical relativism school of thought.
B. are out-of-step with business reality given that the preponderance of company managers are immoral.
C. face a particularly vexing problem of losing business to competitors that have no scruples—an outcome that penalizes ethical companies and company personnel.
D. are misguided in their efforts because bribes and kickbacks are really no different from tipping for service at restaurants as you pay for a service rendered.

Question 17.
Which of the following actions is typically the strategic impetus for forward-vertical integration?
A. Fewer disruptions in the delivery of the company's products to end-users
B. Being able to control the wholesale/retail portion of the industry value chain
C. Allowing the firm access to greater economies of scale
D. Gaining better access to end-users and better market visibility

18. A company's competitive strategy should
A. be supportive with its objective to become at least an average performer within its industry.
End of exam
B. be well matched to its resources and capabilities in order to incorporate standard attributes into its product offering.
C. be well matched to its internal situation and predicated on leveraging its collection of competitively valuable resources and competencies.
D. ensure it is designed to concentrate on a small range of products so it can react quickly to competitive moves.

19. Achieving a cost advantage over rivals entails
A. producing a standard product, redesigning the product infrequently, and having minimal advertising.
B. being a first-mover in pursuing backward and forward integration and controlling as much of the industry value chain as possible.
C. out-managing rivals in performing value-chain activities in a cost effective manner and finding creative ways to cut cost-producing activities out of the value chain.
D. concentrating on the primary activities portion of the value chain and outsourcing all support activities.

20. A company will likely have success in sustaining competitive advantage whenever it
A. has resources and capabilities that don't have substitutes and rivals have trouble duplicating.
B. has a well-known and well-regarded brand name, prefers offensive strategies to defensive strategies, and has a strong balance sheet.
C. is the acknowledged market-share leader.
D. is the industry's acknowledged technology leader

 

Exam 500562RR – Executing the Strategy

1. The first principle in designing an effective compensation system and the most dependable way to keep people focused on strategy execution and the achievement of performance targets is to
A. establish ethical compensation policies and convince employees that they are the firm's most valuable competitive asset.
B. generously reward and recognize people who meet or beat performance targets and to deny rewards and recognition to those who don't.
C. design monetary and nonmonetary incentives that boost labor productivity and help lower the firm's overall labor costs.
D. pay employees a bonus for each strategic and financial objective that the company achieves.

2. General Electric has an up-or-out policy, where key personnel in underperforming units are pressured to boost performance to acceptable levels and keep it there or risk being replaced. What is this an example of?
A. Developing the resources and organizational capabilities required for successful strategy execution
B. Adopting best practices and business processes to drive continuous improvement in strategy execution activities
C. Staffing the organization with managers and employees capable of executing the strategy well
D. Tying rewards and incentives directly to the achievement of strategic and financial targets

3. _______ is an example of an unhealthy company culture.
A. Insular inwardly focused culture
B. Hyper-adaptive culture
C. Change-embracing culture
D. Ethical and triple-bottom-line driven culture

4. To deeply ingrain core values and ethical standards, a company must
A. give big pay raises and bonuses to individuals and groups who display the company's core values and observe its ethical standards.
B. encourage company personnel to observe the core values and ethical standards.
C. turn the espoused core values and ethical standards into strictly enforced cultural norms.
D. provide every employee with a copy of the company's statement of core values and code of ethics.

5. The task of top executives in making corrective adjustments includes
A. thoroughly analyzing the situation and exercising good business judgment in deciding what actions to take.
B. being good at figuring out whether to arrive at decisions quickly or slowly in choosing among the various alternative adjustments.
C. knowing when to continue with the present corporate culture and when to shift to a different and better corporate culture.
D. deciding whether to try to fix the problems of poor strategy execution or simply shift to a strategy that is easier to execute correctly.

6. Motivational and incentive compensation practices that aim at winning the commitment of company personnel to good strategy execution typically
A. aim at creating a no-pressure/no-adverse-consequences work environment.
B. entail paying the highest wages and salaries in the industry and also stressing nonmonetary rewards for high-performing employees.
C. use only positive rewards and never involve the use of tension, fear, job insecurity, stress, or anxiety.
D. strike a middle ground—entailing decidedly positive rewards for meeting or beating performance targets, but also imposing sufficiently negative consequences when actual performance falls short of the target.

7.Apple decides to reallocate resources by curtailing online ad budgets and investing heavily in scratch-resistant Sapphire, the material that differentiates the Apple Watch from rival wearable computing device brands. What is most likely the reason for Apple's reallocation of resources?
A. Signaling commitment to offline sales of the brand
B. Supporting the new strategic initiative of the brand
C. Making critical value chain activities less effective
D. Signaling commitment to online sales of the brand

8. The approach to identifying the items needed to be placed on management's action agenda of the strategy execution plan always involves
A. a set of unimportant managerial tasks that must be covered no matter what the circumstances.
B. generalized activities that will underscore the particulars of the company's situation.
C. senior management's judgment about how to proceed in light of prevailing circumstances.
D. some definitive managerial recipe for successful strategy execution that works for all company situations and all types of strategies, or that works for all types of managers.

9. eBay, an online auction business, streamlines its retail business by listing PayPal, a digital payments company, as a separately traded company. eBay's move is likely to
A. curtail the cost of handling transactions online.
B. enhance eBay's strategy execution capabilities.
C. increase the cost of handling transactions online.
D. promote the entry of rival companies into the digital payments industry.

10. A network structure is a configuration of
A. a series of connected computers and systems.
B. divisions aligned along supply chain and value chain metrics.
C. groups with common goals.
D. independent organizations engaged in a common undertaking.

11. The three components of building an organization capable of good strategy execution are
A. making periodic changes in the firm's internal organization to keep people from getting into a comfortable rut, instituting a decentralized approach to decision making, and developing the appropriate competencies and capabilities.
B. putting a centralized decision-making structure in place, determining who should have responsibility for each value-chain
activity, and aligning the corporate culture with key policies, procedures, and operating practices.
C. staffing the organization, building core competencies and competitive capabilities, and structuring the organization and work effort.
D. hiring a capable top management team, empowering employees, and establishing a strategy-supportive corporate culture.

12. Which of the following exemplifies one of the most widely used methods of gauging how well a company is executing its strategy?
A. Fizz-Cola judges the efficiency of internal operations by benchmarking them against best-in-industry performers.
B. Merrill & Company has a disconnected organizational arrangement whereby pieces of an activity are performed in different functional departments.
C. Oceania identifies agents of change who are convinced about sticking to the old ways of doing things.
D. Honwell narrates success stories of rival brands to convince its personnel about traditional wisdom.

13. One key step in changing a problem culture is to
A. identify dysfunctional facets of the present culture and those that impede strategy execution.
B. create a new vision statement and mission statement.
C. introduce new technologies to help employees grow their core capacities.
D. foster a culture of innovation.

14. Management's most powerful tool for mobilizing organizational commitment to competent strategy execution and operating excellence is the
A. proper use of a reward structure with motivational incentives.
B. diligent and persistent use of benchmarking and best practices.
C. implementation of TQM and/or Six Sigma programs.
D. periodic giving of inspirational speeches aimed at arousing employees' emotional energy.

15. Symbolic culture-changing actions by management include
A. firing employees who refuse to accept the new culture.
B. holding ceremonial events to honor employees who exemplify the new culture.
C. providing positive performance reviews to those who exemplify the new culture.
D. promoting employees who uphold the new culture.

16. When management is leading the drive for good strategy execution and operating excellence, it calls for all of the following actions on their part except
A. staying on top of what is happening.
B. putting constructive pressure on the organization to execute the strategy with excellence.
C. establishing a must-be-invented-here mindset.
D. monitoring progress closely.

17. Why are stories important to cultural change?
A. Stories help reinforce values and reinforce commitment to the values others have made.
B. Employees are more likely to listen to a story than anything else.
C. Weak-culture companies can change their culture most easily through stories.
D. Evolving cultures need the adaptability inherent in storytelling to stick.

18. Six Sigma quality control
A. consists of a disciplined, statistics-based system aimed at fewer than 5.0 complaints per million customer transactions.
B. is a strategy-implementer's best, most reliable tool for simultaneously achieving top-notch product quality and low manufacturing costs.
C. consists of a disciplined, statistics-based system aimed at producing not more than 3.4 defects per million iterations for any business process.
D. consists of a disciplined, statistics-based system aimed at producing not more than 2.5 defects per million iterations for a manufacturing or assembly process.

19. When it is difficult or impossible to out-strategize rivals (beat them with a superior strategy), the other main avenue to competitive advantage is to
A. out-execute them (beat them by performing certain value chain activities in superior fashion).
B. outcompete rivals with a stronger corporate culture.
C. do a better job of empowering employees and flattening the organization structure.
D. beat them with a healthy corporate culture based on such core values as high ethical standards, a strong sense of corporate social responsibility, and genuine concern for customer well-being.

20. Which of the following statements is true about delegating greater authority to subordinate managers and employees?
A. It creates a flatter organizational structure with fewer management layers and usually acts to shorten organizational response times.
B. It can be a de-motivating factor because it requires people to take responsibility for their decisions and actions.
C. It's risky because it usually results in many bad decisions on the part of employees and lower levels of financial performance.
D. Because so many more people are involved, it usually slows down decision making to the extent that it takes longer to reach a consensus.

 

Ashworth Semester Exam E09V Home, School, and Community

Question 1

 Which of the following is TRUE of family system theory?

The focus is on the way the family works rather than the behavior of any individual.

Roles are the most important component of the systems.

Family members are all connected to each other, but they do not influence other members in the family system.

The family systems vary greatly from one family to another in the way they function.

 

Question 2

Which of the following is an indicator for children who are prepared to enter kindergarten?

Children who are can concentrate and focus

Children who can count to 25

Children who can recite the ABC song

Children who are ready for invented spelling

 

Question 3

Which of the following statements is TRUE about attachment?

Attachment theory has not been supported by brain research.

Attachment has no connection to survival.

Attachments occurs faster if adults let babies cry for long periods of time.

The first attachments provide the basis for all future relationships.

 

Question 4

Punishing an active child during the autonomous stage may result in the child:

developing a healthy respect for adults.

developing a sense of shame for exploring.

knowing right from wrong.

being ready for the next stage of development.

 

Question 5

Aggression in young children:

is the same as initiative.

can come from a variety of causes.

is not usually a problem in preschool-age children.

can be healthy if the child can get what they want.

 

Question 6

Which of the following BEST characterizes parents with interdependence goals?

They focus on individualism.

They never \”baby\” their children.

They encourage self-help skills during the first year.

They desire to maintain relationships.

 

Question 7

How can adults help children cope with anger?

By downplaying the feeling

By putting the child in time-out so he will learn not to have those feelings

By helping the child redirect the energy and work through the feeling

By refusing to label the feeling

 

Question 8

When a teacher refers to a person as fireman or policeman regardless of the person's gender, he or she is creating:

stereotypes.

empathy.

a gender-neutral environment.

gender awareness.

 

Question 9

Which is NOT a way to help children and families in stress?

Provide support for the child and for the family.

Take away children's responsibilities.

Teach problem solving.

Provide role models.

 

Question 10

Healthy families have a broad base of support. This can best be seen by:

counting the number of friends you have on Facebook.

completing a stroke pie.

looking at your contact list on your phone.

seeing how many \”likes\” you got on your last post.

 

  

Graded Project Case Analysis – Tesla Motors in 2016

CASE ANALYSIS

INTRODUCTION

You\’ve already examined several cases from the text. Your course project will require a careful reading of the case titled \”Tesla Motors in 2016: Will Its Strategy Be Defeated by Low Gasoline Prices and Mounting Competition?\” in your textbook.Tesla introduced its first vehicle, the all-electric Roadstar, in early 2008. Then, in 2012, Tesla released its ground-breaking Model S Sedan, a fully electric luxury sedan with an all-glass roof and several other luxury features. Purchases of the Model S steadily increased, and it became the best-selling large luxury vehicle in the United States, sur-passing Mercedes Benz. Tesla\’s CEO Elon Musk envisioned a bold and bright future, including a desire to \”accelerate the world\’s transition from…gasoline-powered motor vehicles to…electric vehicles.\” In 2016, however, Tesla began to face three particular challenges that could potentially impede Musk\’s vision for the company: low gasoline prices, growing competition, and the ability to provide its cars at a sufficiently lower price. Amid these challenges, will Tesla be able to achieve its strategy to become the world\’s biggest and most highly regarded producer of electric vehicles?

 

PROCEDURE

Read through Case 16: \”Tesla Motors in 2016: Will Its Strategy Be Defeated by Low Gasoline Prices and Mounting Competition?\” in the back of your textbook. Carefully go through all chapters covered in your course and analyze the Tesla case within the frameworks available. Because this situation is fluid, there\’s no correct or incor-rect answer; what\’s important is your application of course materials and the process of your analysis. Begin with a SWOT analysis, and then read through and thoroughly answer all the questions. When conducting your SWOT analysis, feel free to review the many business articles on Tesla, the stock chat message boards (for sentiment), and any source of information you feel is helpful. Remember to provide citations for any material you quote verbatim.

 

Your paper should provide answers to the following questions:

1.Create a SWOT analysis for Tesla. Refer to both Table 4.3 and Figure 4.2 in your textbook. List Tesla\’s strengths, weaknesses, and potential opportunities and threats. Be sure to include these in your paper by either listing them or creating a diagram similar to Figure 4.2. Then write your conclusions and implications of the analysis. Lastly, provide at least two recommendations based on this analysis. Explain your reasons for these recommendations.

2.Based on what you\’ve read about Mercedes-Benz acquiring a stake in Tesla and strategic partnerships from your text, what are the potential pitfalls of this alliance? Do these pitfalls apply in Tesla\’s case, given their patent policy? Explain why.

3. What type of diversification strategy does the launch of Tesla Energy represent: related or unrelated? Explain why. Does Tesla Energy\’s new business meet the three tests of corporate advantage?

4.What kind of vertical integration strategy did Tesla choose for its distribution and supply chains: backward or forward integration? What are the advantages of its chosen strategies? What are the disadvantages?

5.In reviewing Tesla\’s manufacturing strategy, does the part of Tesla\’s value chain it outsources make strategic sense? Explain why or why not.

6.Which of the five generic strategies is Tesla pursuing with its marketing strategy? Explain.

7.What are the key elements of Tesla\’s culture? What problems do you foresee that Elon Musk will have in sustaining that culture amid growing competition? Explain.

Biology Quiz-2

This Biology Quiz has 54 questions.It is for educational purpose only.

1. Which of the following are the sites within the human body where carbon dioxide and oxygen are 

exchanged?
A. Alveoli
B. Arteries
C. Synapses
D. Venules

2. Which of the following describes the most important reason for repeating an experimental investigation?
A. To verify the validity of the original findings
B. To expand upon the original investigation
C. To manipulate the independent variable
D. To attempt to disprove the hypothesis

3. Lithium has an atomic number of 3 and a mass number of 7. Which of the following is the number of protons in a lithium atom?
A.3
B. 4
C. 7
D. 12

4. Which of the following molecules contains the fewest covalent bonds?
A. Water molecule (Hp)
B. Ammonia molecule (NH3)
C. Methane molecule (CH4)
D. Chlorine molecule (CI2)

5. When salt (NaCI) is added to water, it disassociates into Na• and Cl-ions. Which of the following types of chemical bond is present in a salt molecule?
A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Disulfide bond

6. An example of active immunity is the transfer of
A. antibodies through the placenta.
B. immunoglobulins through breastfeeding.
C. antigens through vaccination.
D. immune cells through a blood transfusion.
7. Which of the following classes of biological molecules include enzymes?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
C. Proteins
D. Vitamins

8. Which of the following parts of the circulatory system carries oxygenated blood?
A. An artery moving blood from the heart to the lungs
B. A vein moving blood to the heart from the body

C. An artery moving blood from the heart to a muscle cell
D. A venule moving blood to the heart from the liver

9. Which of the following genetic terms describes an observable trait of an individual?
A. Heterozygous
B. Genotype
C. Phenotype
D. Homozygous

10. Mutations during which of the following processes in animals will affect offspring of succeeding generations?
A. Meiosis

B. Mitosis
C. Translation
D. Transcription

11. Which of the following will happen if mRNA fails to be translated?
A. The cell\’s nucleus will produce more chromatin.
B. Ribosomes will not be able to create protein.

C. Mitochondria will release ATP.
D. The cell will produce more mRNA

12. Which of the following is the balanced equation for photosynthesis in plant cells?
For this one, the formats of the answers are messed up. The balanced formula is 6Co2+6H20+Energy = C6H12O6+6O2. Looking at the answers I think B is the one with the correct formula but cannot be sure.

A 3C0+ 3H0 + Energy –)-CH120 + 30 2 266 2
B. 6C0+ 6Hp + Energy–)-CHp + 60 2 616 2
C. CH0 + 30–)-3C0+ 3H0 + Energy 6126 2 2 2

D. CHp + 60–)-6C0+ 6Hp + Energy 616 2 2

13. Which of the following classes of biomolecules are frequently responsible for bringing about cell differentiation?
A. Transcription factors
B. lnterleukins
C. Cytokines
D. Nucleotidyl transferases

14. Which of the following is the pH when the concentrations of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions in an aqueous solution are equal?
A. 14
B. 7
C. 1
D. 0

15. Which of the following structures is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Cell membrane
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Chloroplast

16. Which of the following is the purpose of valves in the venous circulatory system?
A. Promoting movement of oxygenated blood toward the heart
B. Facilitating stasis of blood in the veins
C. Propelling blood through the vena cava
D. Preventing backward flow of deoxygenated blood

17. Which of the following cellular organelles is the site of translation during protein synthesis?
A. Cell membrane
B. Nucleolus
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Ribosome

18. In an experiment, a researcher counts the number of oxygen bubbles produced by water plants placed under different colors of light. The researcher finds that water plants placed under white light release more oxygen bubbles than water plants placed under red light. Which of the following statements is best supported based on the observation?
A. Light can break up water molecules to form oxygen.
B. White light increases photosynthesis in plants.

C. Red light has no affect on the release of oxygen from water plants.
D. An increase in temperature decreases the amount of oxygen produced by plants.
19. When normal atmospheric conditions are present, water is constantly being cycled between liquid and gaseous states by which of the following pairs of processes?
A. Turgor pressure and filtration
B. Melting point and condensation
C. Evaporation and condensation
D. Filtration and evaporation

20. A scientist has noted a possible relationship between a certain chemical substance found in fish and the occurrence of kidney failure in humans. Which of the following preliminary steps should the scientist take before conducting a controlled experiment?
A. Establish a cause and effect relationship between the substance and the outcome.
B. Review the literature to determine what other research is available on this topic.
C. Write a research grant proposal to the appropriate federal funding agency.
D. Distribute letters of consent to human subjects who will be used in the research.

21. In the digestive tract, mouth is to bolus as
A. stomach is to chyme.
B. gallbladder is to insulin.
C. small intestine is to carbohydrate.
D. esophagus is to peristalsis.

22. A test is performed to see if applying fertilizer to rose bushes increases the number of flowers on bushes. Which of the following best relates to the hypothesis for this experiment?
A. Watering all of the rose bushes the same amount throughout the experiment
B. Predicting that fertilizer will increase the number of flowers on bushes
C. Selecting a rose bush that will not be fertilized

D. Measuring the number of flowers on the rose bushes each week

23. One neutron is added to the nucleus of an atom of carbon-12. In which of the following ways has the atom been changed?
A. It bonds with different atoms.
B. It has an atomic number of 7.
C. It has been changed to an ion.
D. It has a greater atomic mass.

 

 

 

24. Plant~Deer~Tiger The first step in the energy chain that created the bonds of proteins in the tiger\’s muscle cells in the food chain shown above is the
A. deer the tiger ate.
B. plant the deer ate.
C. photons the sun made.
D. carbohydrates the plant made.

25. Which of the following chemicals is insoluble in water?
A. C6(benzene) H6
B. HCI {hydrochloric acid)
C. NH3 (ammonia)
D. NaHC03 (sodium bicarbonate)

26. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is found exclusively in DNA?
A. Adenine
B. Cytosine
C. Guanine
D. Thymine

27. Both digestion and absorption happen in which of the following parts of the digestive system?
A. Gallbladder
B. Esophagus
C. Stomach
D. Small Intestine

28. Which of the following tissues would send a message to the brain indicating that someone has touched something hot?
A. Epithelial tissue
B. Nervous tissue
C. Muscle tissue
D. Connective tissue

29. Which of the following describes the classification of humans?
A. The genus Homo and the species sapiens
B. The phyla Homo and the species sapiens

C. The family sapiens and the genus Homo

D. The class sapiens and the genus Homo

30. Cellular respiration of glucose is an example of which of the following?
A. Anabolism
B. Reverse osmosis
C. Osmosis
D. Catabolism

31. A student conducts an investigation in which she dissolves 1 gram (g) each of several substances in 50 milliliters (ml) of water. She has 12 identical plastic cups of water. She places 1 g of salt in three cups, 1 g of sugar in three cups, and 1 g of baking soda in three cups. Three cups contain only water. She places all the cups in a freezer and records the temperature in each cup every 15 minutes for 4 hours. Which of the following is the best way for the student to display the results of this investigation?
A. Pie chart
B. Bar graph
C. Venn diagram
D. Line graph

33. In pea plants, the allele for tall (T) is dominant to the allele for short (t). Which of the following is the percent of offspring that will be tall if a heterozygous plant (Tt) is crossed with a homozygous tall plant?
A. 100%
B. 75%
C. 50%
D. 25%

34. An equal mass of which of the following states of matter could completely fill both a 100 mL or 500 ml container?
A. Gas
B. Liquid
C. Mixture
D. Solid

35. Which of the following describes mitosis?
A. A single cell splits and shares its chromatin with a sex cell.
B. Two parent cells combine to create a single cell with equal amounts of DNA from each parent.
C. The nucleus of a single cell creates two new nuclei with DNA identical to the parent cell.
D. An X and a Y chromosome divide in the nucleus of a sex cell before combining into a gamete.

36. The nucleus of an atom is composed of uncharged particles as well as which of the following?
A. Protons
B. Neutrons
C. Electrons
D. Positrons

37. Less-economically developed countries will experience higher birth rates than more-economically developed countries due to
A. decreased availability of sanitary water.

B. higher infant mortality rate.

C. higher literacy rate of women.
D. increased availability of contraceptives.

38. DNA can copy itself quite accurately while RNA cannot because only DNA is
A. in double helix form .
B. surrounded and supported by histone proteins.
C. a polymer of nucleotides.
D. confined to the nucleus.

39. Experiments cannot validate hypotheses, only falsify them. The statement above can be restated in which of the following ways?
A. Until disproved, an explanation for an observation is valid.
B. Certain concepts cannot be subjected to direct experimentation.
C. A hypothesis that has not been falsified remains provisional.
D. Proving a hypothesis exempts it from further testing.

40. A researcher collects high-resolution photographs of the Earth taken from outer space at annual intervals for the last decade. This data would be most useful to analyze which of the following?
A. Human movement during crises
B. Migration patterns of large whales
C. Deforestation in the rainforest
D. Weather patterns during hurricanes

 

 

 

 

41. Moths with a certain coloring are camouflaged in their habitat. Over time, more moths are born with this coloring. Which of the following best explains the increasing number of moths with this coloring?
A. Natural selection
B. Gene flow
C. Genetic drift
D. Sexual selection

42. Pepsin, which speeds up the breakdown of proteins, is classified as
A. a nucleic acid.
B. a carbohydrate.
C. an enzyme.
D. a lipid.

43. Which of the following is the purpose of the waxy substance that builds up in the ear canal?

A. Insulating the ear canal
B. Trapping and removing debris
C. Promoting sound conduction
D. Cushioning and stabilizing the pinna

44. Lungs originate from tissue that also gives rise to the
A. digestive system.
B. circulatory system.
C. nervous system.
D. musculoskeletal system.

45. Which of the following properties of water helps organisms maintain homeostasis with regard to thermoregulation?
A. High heat capacity
B. Adhesion
C. Surface tension
D. Capillary action

46. The function of the Golgi apparatus is to
A. synthesize lipids.
B. degrade nucleic acids.
C. package proteins.
D. assemble carbohydrates.

47. Fitness is a result of which of the following factors?
A. Overproduction
B. Adaptation
C. Variability
D. Homology

48. When calculating population growth, which of the following equations is appropriate?
A. (Emigrants-immigrants)+ (births-deaths)
B. (Immigrants-emigrants)+ (births -deaths)
C. (Births+ deaths)-(emigrants + immigrants)
D. (Births-deaths) -(immigrants+ emigrants)

49. A researcher wants to develop a new pharmaceutical compound to treat pain. Which of the following strategies will likely be the most effective process?
A. Test extracts from newly discovered plants for pain-killing substances.
B. Read anthropological studies to discover plants identified to relieve pain.
C. Study molecular structures of existing pain medications and make structural analogs.
D. Research the pain receptors of people who have unusually high pain thresholds.

50. Two boys pull their identical sleds to the top of a hill. One boy loads his sled with bricks while the other boy does not put any extra objects in his sled. The two boys, each weighing the same, get into their sleds and have a friend start them with equal pushes down the hill. Which of the following hypotheses are the boys most likely testing?
A. The heavier the object, the more momentum it will have.
B. The force of sliding friction is greater than the force of rolling friction.
C. The size of the frictional force is determined by the types of surfaces rubbing together.
D. The faster an object is traveling, the more momentum it will have.

51 . An individual suffers severe blunt trauma to the thoracic cavity. Which of the following organs are at greatest risk from this injury?
A. Heart and lungs
B. Liver and stomach
C. Brain and spinal cord
D. Large and small intestines

 

 

 

 

52. Which of the following statements best explains the relationship between the mitochondria and the plasma membrane?
A. The mitochondria makes proteins that become a part of the plasma membrane.
B. The mitochondria makes a gas that the plasma membrane uses.
C. The mitochondria builds cytoskeleton that gives the plasma membrane strength.
D. The mitochondria makes ATP that the plasma membrane can use for energy.

53. A researcher is studying the rate of chemical reactions within living blood cells. When placing the cells into a petri dish with a pH of 2.5, the researcher should predict that the rate of the reactions will
A. increase immediately.
B. decrease immediately.
C. remain the same.
D. increase immediately, then decrease gradually.

54. Which of the following represents Boyle\’s gas law?
A. Gas turns to a liquid when temperature reaches 0° C (32° F).
B. As the volume of a gas increases, the temperature also increases.
C. At any temperature, inert gases are less combustible than non-inert gases.
D. At a fixed temperature, the pressure and volume of a gas are inversely related