Exam 80546RR Behavior

1.   A commercial for Sure brand of antiperspirant employs the _______ function when it suggests that failure to use the brand may result in situations where the individual is socially embarrassed by the presence of body odor. 
     
  A. ego-defensive 
  B. value-expressive 
  C. utilitarian 
  D. knowledge 
2.   An ad has reached the point of _______ when it has been seen so many times that it no longer triggers recall of favorable feelings from viewers' long-term memory. 
     
  A. wear out 
  B. exhaustion 
  C. fatigue 
  D. maximum impact 
3.   Psychographics involves the measurement of 
     
  A. activities, interests, and opinions. 
  B. activities, interests, and objectives. 
  C. activities, intentions, and objectives. 
  D. attitudes, interests, and opinions. 
4.   Ads that stress sexuality to sell goods or services such as Viagra and Sandals Resorts are largely based on the assumptions that underlie _______ theory. 
     
  A. instinct 
  B. arousal 
  C. cognitive dissonance 
  D. drive 
5.   According to the text, the most common reason for customer dissatisfaction with a business is 
     
  A. hours of operation. 
  B. product assortment. 
  C. customer service failures. 
  D. price level charged for products. 
6.   Over time, consumers attempt to program decisions by seeking shortcuts they can use to reduce the effort involved in decision making. The practice of following rules of thumb to simplify decision making is known as 
     
  A. internal search. 
  B. external search. 
  C. sharpening. 
  D. heuristics.
7.   Dee anticipates a potentially significant gain from expending time and effort in comparison shopping before she purchases her wedding gown. Purchasing the wedding gown is a _______ decision for Dee. 
     
  A. high-involvement 
  B. cognitive 
  C. low-involvement 
  D. programmed 
8.   The small set of brands that comes to mind when one contemplates buying a product is known as the _______ set. 
     
  A. inept 
  B. choice 
  C. evoked 
  D. instrumental 
9.   The _______ threshold is the point beyond which further increments in the intensity of a stimulus cease to produce greater sensation. 
     
  A. terminal 
  B. absolute 
  C. marginal 
  D. differential 
10.   Which model of attitudes considers attitude toward the behavior and subjective norms regarding the behavior? 
     
  A. Theory of trying 
  B. Theory of goal pursuit 
  C. Fishbein's multi-attribute model 
  D. Theory of reasoned action 
11.   It has been proposed that the goal of emotional advertising is bonding. In this sense, bonding means 
     
  A. connecting the consumer and a product through an emotional tie. 
  B. restoring a consumer to his or her optimal stimulation level. 
  C. fusing rational and emotional motivations to precipitate consumer action. 
  D. depicting how a brand complements a consumer's personality and lifestyle. 
12.   According to Neo-Pavlovian conditioning, what's really being conditioned is 
     
  A. rituals. 
  B. post-overt-behavior responses. 
  C. an evaluative response or attitude. 
  D. reflexes. 
13.   _______ considered personality to be a hypothetical entity that can't be separated from interpersonal relationships, and that represents a relatively enduring pattern of dealing with recurrent interpersonal situations. 
     
  A. Sullivan 
  B. Fromm 
  C. Adler 
  D. Horney 
 
14.   The _______ concept states that a task becomes easier and is performed more quickly as the number of repetitions increases. 
     
  A. halo effect 
  B. stimulus-generalization effect 
  C. learning curve 
  D. retroactive inference 
15.   To create an image of quality for its new and existing products, General Electric applies the same brand name to every item the company markets. This practice of family branding applies concepts borrowed from 
     
  A. operant conditioning. 
  B. the theory of reasoned action. 
  C. classical conditioning. 
  D. attribution theory. 
16.   People who are generally unwilling to seek and accept challenges are referred to as 
     
  A. low-sensation seekers. 
  B. low achievers. 
  C. opinion leaders. 
  D. opinion receivers.
17.   The allocation of mental capacity to a stimulus or task is known as 
     
  A. sensation. 
  B. attention. 
  C. memory. 
  D. exposure. 
18.   The inability to perceive all of the stimuli that compete for a person's attention is a result of 
     
  A. selective exposure. 
  B. perceptual vigilance. 
  C. perceptual overloading. 
  D. selective attention
19.   Which of the following statements about nonprogrammed decisions is true? 
     
  A. They result from novel circumstances or situations that consumers encounter infrequently. 
  B. They're performed with minimal effort. 
  C. They're part of the consumer's regular routine. 
  D. They require no special thought on the part of the consumer. 
20.   Those who demonstrate greater public self-consciousness are sometimes referred to as high self- 
     
  A. motivators. 
  B. monitors. 
  C. achievers. 
  D. actualizers. 
     

Ashworth Semester Exam- C09S Principles of Finance

C09S : Principles of Finance
Of the following, which is NOT one of the four main areas of finance?
International finance
Corporate finance
Investments
All are considered main areas of finance.
________ is a major disadvantage of the corporate form of business.
Double taxation
Unlimited liability
Lack of ability to raise capital
Transfer of ownership
Everything else equal, an industry with more leverage will have a:
higher return on assets.
higher return on equity.
lower return on equity.
Both A & B
If you can earn 5.25% per year on your investments, how long will it take to double your money?
6.31 years
19.05 years
13.55 years
There is not enough information to answer this question.
Travis bought a share of stock for $31.50 that paid a dividend of $.85 and sold six months later for $27.65. What was his dollar profit or loss and holding period return?
-$3.00, -9.52%
-$3.85, -12.22%
-$.85, -2.70%
-$3.85, -9.52%
If you were required to estimate the average return for one category of securities for the coming year, history tells us that you should have the greatest degree of confidence estimating which of the following?
Long-term government bonds
3-month U.S. Treasury bills
Small-company stocks
Large-company stocks
Which of the following are not considered a part of the firm's capital structure?
Long-term debt
Retained earnings
Inventory
Preferred stock
Which of the following choices lists the least to most aggressive actions in the pursuit of overdue debt?
1) a collection agency, 2) court action, 3) a letter requesting overdue payment
1) court action, 2) a collection agency, 3) a letter requesting overdue payment
1) a letter requesting overdue payment, 2) court action, 3) a collection agency
1) a letter requesting overdue payment, 2) a collection agency, 3) court action
John is in a high income-tax bracket and wishes to minimize current taxes payable. He also has a sizeable current income and prefers high growth rates to significant annual cash flow from his equity investments. Which of the following dividend polices would John most likely prefer if we assume that the dividend policy has no impact on the value of the firm and that the capital gains tax rate is lower than the ordinary tax rate?
High-dividend-payout policy
No-dividend-payout policy
Low-dividend-payout policy
John would be indifferent to all of the dividend policies.
Which of the following would NOT be considered a cost of debt financing?
The required return on a bank loan
The required return on preferred stock
The yield-to-maturity of a bond issue
The required return on money borrowed from a venture capitalist
   

Ashworth Semester Exam – C06S Business Ethics

C06S : Business Ethics
Which is NOT a requirement for a facility to be considered a sweatshop?
Unmitigated health and safety hazards
High temperatures
Poor working conditions
Unfair wages
How have most businesses adapted to information technology developments?
They have become larger and more unwieldy.
They have become more hierarchical.
They have become flatter, smaller, and more nimble.
They have become more profitable.
UNOCAL worked with the Burmese army to push the pipeline using:
low-wage workers.
forced labor.
unethical land reclamation schemes.
None of the above
What is the “hardwired” Intention Principle?
Harming by action is worse than harming by omission.
Harming by omission is worse than harming by ignorance.
Harming by physical contact is worse than without physical contact.
Harming anyone for any reason is wrong.
During the financial crisis in 2008, George W. Bush asked U.S. Congress to pass legislation to create a Troubled Asset Relief Program (TARP) in the amount of:
$1 trillion.
$90 billion.
$80 billion.
$700 billion.
China and Singapore are examples of what type of economies?
Ones that favor free markets and globalization
Ones that favor individual property rights
Ones that favor government intervention
Ones that favor competition
Which of the following would negatively impact the effectiveness of market theory consumer protection?
Low prices
Monopolies
High prices
Many competitors
Which is the best description of intentional discrimination?
The conscious and deliberate discriminatory act on an individual
The discrimination brought about by the unconscious biases of an individual
The acts of discrimination made by the few heads of an organization
The discrimination that results from the routines and processes of large groups
Which of the following is NOT a key consideration for an employer when impinging on an employee’s privacy?
Relevance
Consent
Methods
Utility
Which of these is NOT a view on the duty of a business to its customers?
Duty of care view
Social costs view
Contract view
Normative view
   

Ashworth Semester Exam A01S Introduction to Accounting

A01S : Introduction to Accounting
Accounting provides information to:
managers.
government.
investors.
All of the above.
Which is an advantage of a sole proprietorship form of business?
There is limited personal risk.
The business can continue indefinitely.
The owner makes all the decisions.
All of the above.
If total assets are $35,000 and total liabilities are $8,000, Capital must equal:
12000
27000
8000
20000
Revenue, expenses, and withdrawals are subdivisions of:
assets.
liabilities.
owner's equity.
All of the above.
A formal account that has columns for date, explanation, post reference, debit, and credit is called the:
T account.
standard account form.
ledger.
chart of accounts.
An account that would be decreased by a credit is:
cash.
fees earned.
capital.
accounts payable.
The time period for which a statement of owner's equity is prepared is a(n):
calendar year.
accounting period.
fiscal period.
accounting cycle.
Financial statements that are prepared for a period shorter than a year are called:
accounting period statements.
fiscal year statements.
interim statements.
journal statements.
How are explanations distinguished in the journal?
They are underlined.
They are in bold print.
They are indented below the credit entries.
They are written at the margin, in line with the debit entries.
Prepaid Rent is considered to be a(n):
liability.
asset.
contra-asset.
revenue.
    

Ashworth Semester Exam OR110 Achieving Academic Excellence (Re-exam)

Achieving Academic Excellence involves:

devoting as much time as possible studying.

knowing not only what to study, but how to study.

passing this course.

getting the most out of college.

 

success in college requires:

effective self-management.

diligence.

humor.

being involved in social networks

 

You want to discover your learning style because:

you are curious.

it lets you know how you learn best.

it makes learning easy.

you want to know if you are visual or auditory

 

Online learning is impossible without:

information literacy.

media literacy.

the use of textbooks.

an Internet connection.

 

achieving goals you set is greatly helped by:

writing down your long-term goals.

your learning style.

managing your time efficiently.

getting good grades

.To actively read means to:

read aloud.

concentrate on understanding.

read fast.

minimize note-taking.

 

to be an effective communicator is to:

write well.

speak well.

be understood.

express your meaning clearly in writing and verbally.

 

problem-solving is about:

coming up with solutions.

knowing the right formula or equation.

using critical thinking skills in the process.

only mathematics.

 

 

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Test-taking is:

the only measure of learning.

a necessary tool of learning.

the end-all and be-all of college education.

dispensable

 

information from the Internet is:

always credible.

a good source for research material.

the easiest material to research.

as good as library materials.

     



Ashworth Semester Exam C05 Business Communication

C05 Business Communication

Question 1

In terms of his career, Ryan's communication skills:

will neither help him find a job nor help him keep one.

won't make any difference in his salary potential.

will be perceived as important by his employers, but cannot be translated into savings for his company.

will make him a valuable employee.

 

Question 2

Which of the following is an example of unsuccessful communication?

Ordering an item online then deciding, after it arrives, that you don't like it

Asking a friend for advice and then trying to apply it to your problem

Receiving instructions on how to put something together and then assembling the item

Making an urgent request on a colleague's voicemail and getting no reply for a week

 

Question 3

Which of the following is most likely to be the desired outcome of a persuasive message for a product?

The recipient will decide to purchase the product.

The recipient will be impressed by the function of the product.

The recipient will throw away their older version of the product.

The recipient will compare the product with other similar ones.

 

Question 4

Shannon needs to deliver some information quickly to a large group of people. Which of the following would be the best medium for her to use?

Email

Telephone

Memo

Letter

 

Question 5

Audiences easily get lost and bored if they cannot anticipate the twists and turns that a presentation may take. To avoid this, the presenter should:

open the presentation with a genuine question.

establish a rapport with the audience at the beginning of the presentation.

provide a framework for the presentation during the opening of the presentation.

open the presentation with an anecdote.

 

Question 6

Why are bad-news messages challenging to compose?

They must be lengthy and vague to avoid legal consequences.

They require you to achieve a number of goals that are incompatible at first glance.

They make it impossible to maintain your audience's goodwill.

They run the risk of alienating your audience.

 

Question 7

If you perform a search using the phrases “health insurance plans” and “freelance workers,” the search engine will:

give you those sites that include either exact phrase.

give you only those sites that include both phrases.

give you those sites that include any of these five words anywhere on a page.

give you only those sites that include the first phrase and exclude the second.

 

Question 8

Which of the following is true of a proposal?

It is simple to prepare.

It does not need to provide details on how to implement itself.

It requires you to develop a persuasive appeal.

It should not address costs.

 

Question 9

Which of the following is an informational report?

A report recommending action based on what was discussed at a meeting

A report summarizing a meeting that happened in the past

A report providing results based on the evaluation of data obtained from a focus group

A report endorsing a particular solution to a problem

 

Question 10

Which of the following tools is most likely to be used during a presentation if the content to be presented is lengthy and cannot be seen easily in slide form?

Podcasts

Handouts

Whiteboards

Flipcharts

  

 

Ashworth Semester Exam SP180 Principles of Public Speaking

SP180 Principles of Public Speaking

Question 1

in planning a speech, addressing the question of Why refers to:

knowing your audience.

subject or topic.

timing.

purpose of the speech

 

Question 2

When deciding on the topic, it is important to consider:

your audience and which topic would interest them.

a topic that is new to you.

a topic that would be humorous.

something that is easy to write.

 

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT your audience?

Receivers of the communication

Listeners

People you are speaking to

Advisers

 

Question 4

supplementary speech materials could be:

facts.

examples.

stories.

all of the above

 

Question 5

which one is NOT considered a visual aid?

Map

Story

Photograph

Chart

 

Question 6

The conclusion of the speech should serve to:

summarize.

establish connection.

explain main idea.

orient audience to speech

 

Question 7

Organizing a speech means to:

research the materials.

presenting a speech in a logical manner.

selecting words to use.

adapt the speech to audience.

 

Question 8

Demographics is important to know your:

speech.

topic.

audience.

location of speaking event.

 

Question 9

When your speech adds to your listeners’ knowledge, it is meant to:

inform.

persuade.

entertain.

celebrate

 

Question 10

It is very important to practice your speech:

when you are a new speaker.

only when you are not familiar with the topic.

only when you are not familiar with your audience.

as often as necessary to get it right

     



Ashworth Semester Exam EN120 English Composition I

Question 1

Freewriting, brainstorming, clustering, asking questions, and keeping a journal are examples of:

achieving coherence.

revising paragraphs.

prewriting techniques.

providing variety in paragraphs

 

Question 2

There are three basic ways of ordering ideas for coherence in paragraphs; they are:

time order, space order, and order of importance.

comparison, contrast, and description.

grammar, mechanics, and spelling.

process, persuasion, and personification

 

Question 3

The following sentences probably came from a/an __________ paragraph. “A trophy that sits on my shelf has become a lasting symbol of pride in overcoming obstacles for me. I was twelve at the time and had no special talents; in fact, sometimes I stuttered when I felt pressured to answer. It was in September of that year when the debate coach asked me to come into her office.”

descriptive

narrative

cause-and-effect

illustrative

 

Question 4

Which of the following sentences uses subordination correctly?

We will eat dinner, when Sara arrives.

I enjoyed the class, although I did not learn very much.

When the teacher announced that the exam was over, we sighed with relief.

When I am hungry I usually enjoy eating a piece of fruit or a raw carrot.

 

Question 5

The following sentences probably came from a/an __________ paragraph. “If you follow these directions carefully, you should not have trouble getting to Central City Museum. Begin by catching the express bus on Heron Street and taking it to the last stop, Regal Square.”

descriptive

narrative

process

illustrative

 

Question 6

in which sentence does the antecedent clearly refer to the pronoun?

Kelly is an excellent singer, yet she has never taken a lesson in it.

In North Carolina farmers raise tobacco.

Mr. Jones told his son that his car had a flat tire.

In Washington they grow apples.

 

Question 7

in writing, __________ stress differences, whereas __________ stresses similarities.

illustration; description

contrast; comparison

persuasion; explanation

classification; analysis

 

Question 8

Problems that are specific to cause-and-effect writing include:

errors in comma and apostrophe usage.

using spatial order instead of chronological order to organize the paragraphs.

a lack of sentence variety and incorrect parallel structure.

oversimplification and the confusion of time order with causation.

 

Question 9

____ is the final step in the writing process.

Proofreading

Organizing

Clustering

Brainstorming

 

Question 10

plagiarism is:

failing to give credit to an author whose words or ideas you use.

stealing.

a punishable offense.

All of the above are true


     


Ashworth Semester Exam C15V Principles of Management

C15V Principles of Management

Question 1

The three essential managerial skills include:

technical, human, and empirical.

human, empirical, and conceptual.

technical, interpersonal, and controlling.

technical, human, and conceptual.

 

Question 2

A(n)________ is the existence of a discrepancy between an existing and a desired state of affairs.

opportunity

solution

weakness

problem

 

Question 3

the quantitative approach involves applications of:

statistics, information models, and computer simulations.

psychology testing, focus groups, and mathematics.

optimization models, interviews, and questionnaires.

surveys, strategic planning, and group problem solving

 

Question 4

Ethics training sessions can provide what benefit?

They clarify acceptable and unacceptable practices.

They create ego strength in employees.

They evaluate decisions and management practices in terms of the code of ethics.

They strengthen the employees’ locus of control.

 

Question 5

Planning is often called the primary management function because it:

offers some basis for future decision making.

creates the vision for the organizational members to work toward.

establishes the basis for all the other functions.

sets the tone for the organizational culture

 

Question 6

_________ teams tend to be more task-oriented especially if the team members have never personally met.

Cross-functional

Problem-solving

Self-managed

Virtual

 

Question 7

A theory that suggests that employees compare their inputs and outcomes from a job to the ratio of input to outcomes of relevant others is known as:

action motivation.

goal setting.

reinforcement theory.

equity theory.

 

Question 8

how would a manager motivate low-skilled, minimum-wage employees?

Offer more pay for high levels of performance

Use employee recognition programs

Provide the opportunity for training

Provide the opportunity for full-time employment

Question 9

Managers can’t really know whether their work units are working properly until they’ve evaluated what activities have been done:

with those who remain.

and have compared actual performance to a desired standard.

and evaluate the performance of each of their employees.

successfully.

 

Question 10

The prevalent thinking today is that:

organizations must make everyone fit a common corporate mold.

organizations should support, nurture, and utilize people's differences in a way that respects employees' unique perspectives and promotes a shared vision.

employees have a single identity.

All of the above.