Exam 412757RR – Group Medical Expense Benefits

 

Exam: 412757RR – Group Medical Expense Benefits

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Questions 1 to 20:

Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page break, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer.

 

1. Which of the following statements concerning extended-care facility benefits is correct?

A. Benefits are usually provided only if 24-hour-a-day nursing care is needed.

B. Benefits are not contingent upon a prior hospitalization.

C. Benefits usually are provided for domiciliary care for the aged.

D. Benefits usually are provided for inpatient treatment of drug or alcohol abuse.

 

2. An HMO that contracts solely with two or more independent groups of physicians to provide medical services to its subscribers is called a

A. mixed-model HMO.

B. group-model HMO.

C. network-model HMO.

D. individual practice association.

 

3. Which of the following statements about second opinions is correct?

A. If the first and second opinion conflict, the patient must make a decision or pay for a third opinion out of pocket.

B. More plans are requiring mandatory second opinions because it has proven to contain costs.

C. Mandatory provisions often apply only to a specified list of procedures.

D. Voluntary provisions require the insured to accept the final opinion or face financial consequences.

 

4. Which of the following statements concerning the NAIC Small Employer Health Insurance Availability Model Act is correct?

A. Insurance companies can use the same policies in multiple states.

B. If coverage is made available to employees, it must also be made available to their dependents.

C. All providers of medical expense coverage are required to offer coverage to small employers.

D. Pre-existing conditions provisions are not allowed.

 

5. The use of health savings accounts and other self-directed medical expense plans typically involve the use of medical expense policies.

A. Blue Cross and Blue Shield

B. self-insured

C. high-deductible

D. traditional

 

6. When Blue Cross first began, it was in the business of providing coverage for

A. physician care for the financially needy.

B. physician care for the elderly.

C. hospitalization.

D. prescriptions.

 

7. State reactions to managed care backlash include prohibitions against which of the following?

A. Point-of-service options

B. Direct access to specialists

C. Any-willing-provider laws

D. Provider gag clauses

 

8. All the following expenses are often subject to internal limitations under major medical policies except

A. diagnostic X-rays and laboratory services.

B. home healthcare benefits.

C. treatment for mental and nervous disorders.

D. hospital room and board.

 

9. The medical expense insurance-like organizations that eventually came to be called Blue Cross plans were initially run by

A. charity organizations.

B. employers.

C. physicians.

D. hospitals.

 

10. Jim and Betty are married with one child, and both are employed by the same company. Jim, who was born on February 9, 1968, has been with the company for 10 years. Betty, who was born on May 12, 1965, has been with the company for 8 years. Who is the primary provider of health care coverage for the child?

A. Betty, because she's older than Jim

B. Jim, because of his date of birth

C.Both Betty and Jim, because they have the same insurance

D. Jim, because he's been with the company longer than Betty

 

11. Mary goes to the doctor and pays for her visit. When she gets home, she must fill out a form and submit it to the insurance company so she can be reimbursed. What type of insurance does she most likely have?

A. HMO

B. The Blues

C. Indemnity

D. POS

 

12. Which of the following would typically be covered under home healthcare benefits?

A. 24-hour nursing care

B. Prescription drugs

C. Physical therapy

D. Diagnostic testing

 

13. Which of the following statements concerning the Mental Health Parity Act is correct?

A. It requires employers to make benefits available for mental illness.

B. The provisions of the act only apply to employers with more than 50 employees.

C. It requires alcoholism and drug addiction to be treated like any other mental illness.

D. It prohibits different cost-sharing provisions for mental health benefits and other medical and surgical benefits.

 

14. Which of the following statements concerning basic medical expense benefits is correct?

A. Hospital expense coverage usually provides coverage for emergency room treatment of accidental injuries at any time following an accident.

B. Surgical expense coverage usually provides benefits for surgery in a hospital only.

C. Hospital expense coverage usually expresses room-and-board benefits as the full cost of semiprivate accommodations.

D. Physicians' visits expense coverage must always include out-of-hospital visits.

 

15. A benefit that does not try to cure a person's ailments, but rather attempts to make a patient comfortable in his or her last days or weeks before death, is called

A. home health care.

B. terminal care.

C. extended care.

D. hospice.

 

16. Which of the following statements concerning point-of-service plans is correct?

A. The term point-of-service implies a lesser degree of managed care than is found in most PPOs.

B. They are hybrid arrangements that combine aspects of an HMO with a PPO.

C. A member of a point-of-service plan can never go outside the plan's network without informing the plan.

D. They prohibit treatment outside an exclusive-provider network unless the network does not contain an appropriate specialist.

 

17. Company X must make sure that it provides HMO coverage as an option in its benefit-selection process. What act would require Company X to do this?

A. Financial Services Modernization Act

B. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

C. Americans with Disabilities Act

D. Health Maintenance Organization Act

 

18. Which of the following types of medical expense plans has the highest degree of managed care?

A. Point-of-service plans

B. Independent practice association HMOs

C. Closed-panel HMOs

D. Preferred provider organizations

 

19. A benefit plan that provides a less expensive choice for treatment is often a smart way to reduce costs. An example of this type of plan is

A. implementing maximum benefits.

B. allowing the use of birthing centers.

C. allowing longer hospital stays.

D. requiring higher deductibles.

 

20. Which of the following statements concerning multiple-option plans is correct?

A. Because the plans are subject to experience rating, costs may be higher.

B. Non-federally qualified HMOs are never used in multiple-option plans.

C. They may allow experience rating of an employer's entire medical expense plan, including HMO coverage.

D. They increase administrative complexity if an employer offers more than one type of medical expense coverage.

   

 

C08 Quiz 8 olitical Parties and Interest Groups & Public Opinion and Public Participation SCORE 90 PERCENT

Question 1

5 / 5 points

What positive effect can third parties have on the American political system?

Question options:

a) 

They tend to win many elections.

b) 

They can bring up new ideas that the major parties may hesitate to address.

c) 

They\’re only allowed to run in low population states.

d) 

They spoil elections for the major parties.

 

What term is given to a situation in which a federal agency sides with the industry they\’re supposed to regulate rather than the public good?

Question options:

a) 

Agency capture

b) 

Agency direction

c) 

Agency discretion

d) 

Governmental corruption

 

What\’s the oldest continuing political party in the United States?

Question options:

a) 

Democratic Party

b) 

Green Party

c) 

Constitution Party

d) 

Republican Party

 

Which of the following stances is likely to be held by the Republican Party?

Question options:

a) 

Higher taxes

b) 

Less regulation on businesses

c) 

More regulation on businesses

d) 

Pro-choice on the abortion issue

 

What makes it natural for Americans to join together for political purposes?

Question options:

a) 

The American tradition of voting in elections

b) 

Americans are naturally drawn to political parties.

c) 

The American tradition of free association

d) 

The American tradition of stare decisis

 

Which of the following most accurately describes turnout in recent presidential elections?

Question options:

a) 

Most recent presidential elections have a turnout of around 30%.

b) 

We don\’t keep records of election turnout.

c) 

Most recent presidential elections have a turnout of around 60%.

d) 

Most recent presidential elections have a turnout of around 80%.

 

Which of the following is likely to be part of the Democratic Party\’s platform?

Question options:

a) 

A stance that favors fewer restrictions on gun ownership

b) 

A pro-life stance on abortion

c) 

Decreasing business regulations

d) 

Raising the minimum wage

 

Which of the following is not a form of political participation?

Question options:

a) 

Watching TV news

b) 

Donating money to candidates

c) 

Voting

d) 

Demonstrating for a political cause

 

How are elected officials likely to react to a high-salience issue?

Question options:

a) 

They\’ll give that issue attention.

b) 

Officials pay no attention to the salience of issues.

c) 

They\’ll ignore that issue.

d) 

There are no good ways of measuring salience.

 

What\’s a drawback of using elections to measure public opinion?

Question options:

a) 

The government doesn\’t collect demographic information.

b) 

It can be difficult to know exactly why a person voted for a candidate.

c) 

We can\’t know who voted in elections.

d) 

We can\’t know the party registration of who voted.

 

What impact would opinion intensity have on voter behavior?

Question options:

a) 

Voters who have strong opinions on an issue are less likely to take that issue into account when voting.

b) 

Intensity has no impact on voting behavior.

c) 

Voters who have strong opinions on an issue are more likely to take that issue into account when voting.

d) 

Voters who have weak opinions on an issue are more likely to take that issue into account when voting.

 

What\’s a factor that challenges the accuracy of telephone polls?

Question options:

a) 

Neutral questions can\’t be asked over the phone.

b) 

Internet polls are more accurate.

c) 

Not all Americans are willing to participate.

d) 

It\’s difficult to train phone pollsters.

 

What term refers to the tendency of people to choose to pay attention to information that supports what they already believe?

Question options:

a) 

Cognitive dissonance

b) 

Party politics

c) 

Party perception

d) 

Selective perception

 

Why do Americans not hold lawmakers accountable for disregarding public opinion in policy?

Question options:

a) 

Public opinion typically aligns with the desires of interest groups.

b) 

American voters like it when their elected officials go against popular opinion.

c) 

All measurements of popular opinion are typically wrong.

d) 

Few Americans pay attention to government enough to know if public opinion is being followed.

 

What was George Washington\’s view of political parties?

Question options:

a) 

He didn\’t want them in the United States.

b) 

He thought they were bad but necessary. (Incorrect)

c) 

He passed a law banning political parties.

d) 

He wanted parties to form.

 

What\’s happened to the number of Americans voting a straight ticket in recent years?

Question options:

a) 

States have banned straight-ticket voting.

b) 

It has decreased.

c) 

It has stayed steady.

d) 

It has increased.

 

What was the original goal of requiring voter registration?

Question options:

a) 

To stop people from voting

b) 

To stop people from voting more than once

c) 

To keep records on all Americans

d) 

To expand the number of people voting

 

Who of the following is most likely to vote Republican?

Question options:

a) 

Person who lives in an urban area (Incorrect)

b) 

African American

c) 

Person in a lower income bracket

d) 

Protestant

 

Who of the following is most likely to be a voter?

Question options:

a) 

Person younger than 35

b) 

A person living in the South

c) 

Long-time resident of a community

d) 

An unmarried person

 

Why is creating a platform important for political parties?

Question options:

a) 

It locks the elected officials of that party into supporting the ideas in the platform.

b) 

It presents the policy stances of the party to the American people.

c) 

The platform must change every four years according to party rules.

d) 

The platform is used to determine how many seats in Congress each party has.


   

 

C08 Quiz 8 olitical Parties and Interest Groups & Public Opinion and Public Participation SCORE 90 PERCENT

Question 1

5 / 5 points

What positive effect can third parties have on the American political system?

Question options:

a) 

They tend to win many elections.

b) 

They can bring up new ideas that the major parties may hesitate to address.

c) 

They’re only allowed to run in low population states.

d) 

They spoil elections for the major parties.

 

What term is given to a situation in which a federal agency sides with the industry they’re supposed to regulate rather than the public good?

Question options:

a) 

Agency capture

b) 

Agency direction

c) 

Agency discretion

d) 

Governmental corruption

 

What’s the oldest continuing political party in the United States?

Question options:

a) 

Democratic Party

b) 

Green Party

c) 

Constitution Party

d) 

Republican Party

 

Which of the following stances is likely to be held by the Republican Party?

Question options:

a) 

Higher taxes

b) 

Less regulation on businesses

c) 

More regulation on businesses

d) 

Pro-choice on the abortion issue

 

What makes it natural for Americans to join together for political purposes?

Question options:

a) 

The American tradition of voting in elections

b) 

Americans are naturally drawn to political parties.

c) 

The American tradition of free association

d) 

The American tradition of stare decisis

 

Which of the following most accurately describes turnout in recent presidential elections?

Question options:

a) 

Most recent presidential elections have a turnout of around 30%.

b) 

We don’t keep records of election turnout.

c) 

Most recent presidential elections have a turnout of around 60%.

d) 

Most recent presidential elections have a turnout of around 80%.

 

Which of the following is likely to be part of the Democratic Party’s platform?

Question options:

a) 

A stance that favors fewer restrictions on gun ownership

b) 

A pro-life stance on abortion

c) 

Decreasing business regulations

d) 

Raising the minimum wage

 

Which of the following is not a form of political participation?

Question options:

a) 

Watching TV news

b) 

Donating money to candidates

c) 

Voting

d) 

Demonstrating for a political cause

 

How are elected officials likely to react to a high-salience issue?

Question options:

a) 

They’ll give that issue attention.

b) 

Officials pay no attention to the salience of issues.

c) 

They’ll ignore that issue.

d) 

There are no good ways of measuring salience.

 

What’s a drawback of using elections to measure public opinion?

Question options:

a) 

The government doesn’t collect demographic information.

b) 

It can be difficult to know exactly why a person voted for a candidate.

c) 

We can’t know who voted in elections.

d) 

We can’t know the party registration of who voted.

 

What impact would opinion intensity have on voter behavior?

Question options:

a) 

Voters who have strong opinions on an issue are less likely to take that issue into account when voting.

b) 

Intensity has no impact on voting behavior.

c) 

Voters who have strong opinions on an issue are more likely to take that issue into account when voting.

d) 

Voters who have weak opinions on an issue are more likely to take that issue into account when voting.

 

What’s a factor that challenges the accuracy of telephone polls?

Question options:

a) 

Neutral questions can’t be asked over the phone.

b) 

Internet polls are more accurate.

c) 

Not all Americans are willing to participate.

d) 

It’s difficult to train phone pollsters.

 

What term refers to the tendency of people to choose to pay attention to information that supports what they already believe?

Question options:

a) 

Cognitive dissonance

b) 

Party politics

c) 

Party perception

d) 

Selective perception

 

Why do Americans not hold lawmakers accountable for disregarding public opinion in policy?

Question options:

a) 

Public opinion typically aligns with the desires of interest groups.

b) 

American voters like it when their elected officials go against popular opinion.

c) 

All measurements of popular opinion are typically wrong.

d) 

Few Americans pay attention to government enough to know if public opinion is being followed.

 

What was George Washington’s view of political parties?

Question options:

a) 

He didn’t want them in the United States.

b) 

He thought they were bad but necessary. (Incorrect)

c) 

He passed a law banning political parties.

d) 

He wanted parties to form.

 

What’s happened to the number of Americans voting a straight ticket in recent years?

Question options:

a) 

States have banned straight-ticket voting.

b) 

It has decreased.

c) 

It has stayed steady.

d) 

It has increased.

 

What was the original goal of requiring voter registration?

Question options:

a) 

To stop people from voting

b) 

To stop people from voting more than once

c) 

To keep records on all Americans

d) 

To expand the number of people voting

 

Who of the following is most likely to vote Republican?

Question options:

a) 

Person who lives in an urban area (Incorrect)

b) 

African American

c) 

Person in a lower income bracket

d) 

Protestant

 

Who of the following is most likely to be a voter?

Question options:

a) 

Person younger than 35

b) 

A person living in the South

c) 

Long-time resident of a community

d) 

An unmarried person

 

Why is creating a platform important for political parties?

Question options:

a) 

It locks the elected officials of that party into supporting the ideas in the platform.

b) 

It presents the policy stances of the party to the American people.

c) 

The platform must change every four years according to party rules.

d) 

The platform is used to determine how many seats in Congress each party has.


   

 

HS150 World Civilizations I Assignment 4 (2020)

ASSIGNMENT 04

HS150 World Civilizations I

Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling, and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double‐spaced pages; refer to the “Format Requirementsʺ page for specific format requirements.

 

Describe the conquests of Alexander the Great and analyze the legacy of his empire. (Refer to Chapter 7 of your textbook and additional references) Be sure to mention his impact on Persia, India, and Egypt as well as the cultural implications of his conquests.

 

Grading Rubric

 

Please refer to the rubric on the next page for the grading criteria for this assignment.


   

C08 Quiz 6 The Judicial Branch SCORE 90 PERCENT

Question 1

5 / 5 points

What term refers to the tendency of courts to follow decisions that have been made by earlier courts?

Question options:

a) 

Tradition

b) 

Judicial review

c) 

Jurisdiction

d) 

Precedence

 

 

Question 2

5 / 5 points

Who decides the structure of each state’s courts?

Question options:

a) 

The US Constitution

b) 

Congress

c) 

The Supreme Court

d) 

The states themselves

 

 

Question 3

5 / 5 points

What tradition forms the basis for American law?

Question options:

a) 

Civil law

b) 

Criminal law

c) 

Codified law

d) 

Common law

 

 

Question 4

5 / 5 points

What type of federal court handles the majority of the federal case work load?

Question options:

a) 

State Supreme Courts

b) 

District court

c) 

The Supreme Court

d) 

Court of appeals

 

 

Question 5

5 / 5 points

Which of the following applies to judicial review?

Question options:

a) 

It can be removed when the president requires it.

b) 

The Court was empowered with it by the Constitution.

c) 

It refers to the Court’s power to strike down laws as unconstitutional.

d) 

It refers to a court’s tendency to follow the decisions of earlier courts.

 

 

Question 6

5 / 5 points

Who has the power to determine the number of federal courts?

Question options:

a) 

The Supreme Court

b) 

Congress

c) 

The Justice Department

d) 

The President

 

 

Question 7

5 / 5 points

What type of opinion is written by a justice who sides with the majority but disagrees with all or part of the legal reasoning?

Question options:

a) 

Legal opinion

b) 

Majority opinion

c) 

Concurring opinion

d) 

Dissenting opinion

 

 

Question 8

0 / 5 points

Which of the following would best describe the recent conservative-dominated Supreme Court?

Question options:

a) 

Activist court

b) 

An elected court

c) 

A court that shows judicial restraint in all cases

d) 

A court that follows the lead of Congress (Incorrect)

 

 

Question 9

5 / 5 points

What limits the political partisanship of federal judges?

Question options:

a) 

They must still make decisions according to the law, not their own opinions.

b) 

They take an oath to remain apolitical.

c) 

They may be impeached for making political decisions.

d) 

They may lose re-election if they make radical choices.

 

 

Question 10

5 / 5 points

The constitutional provision that federal judges and justices hold office “during good behavior” has

Question options:

a) 

meant, in effect, that they’ll serve until they die or choose to retire.

b) 

removed all presidential influence over judicial policy.

c) 

eliminated any legal ability by Congress to remove a judge from office.

d) 

given voters control over the conduct of federal judges.

 

 

Question 11

0 / 5 points

Which of the following is true about today’s Supreme Court?

Question options:

a) 

Nominees typically come from the appellate courts.

b) 

The Supreme Court is less racially diverse than before.

c) 

Nominees typically have previous high-level elected office experience. (Incorrect)

d) 

The Supreme Court is less diverse than before with regard to gender.

 

 

Question 12

5 / 5 points

What happens in appellate courts?

Question options:

a) 

They determine if trial courts apply the law properly.

b) 

They retry cases entirely.

c) 

They only handle issues regarding the constitutionality of laws.

d) 

They approve high-level presidential appointments.

 

 

Question 13

5 / 5 points

A writ of certiorari is

Question options:

a) 

an official transcript of Supreme Court proceedings.

b) 

a request to a lower court to submit to the Supreme Court a record of the case it has been requested to hear.

c) 

the statement explaining the reasoning behind a Supreme Court decision.

d) 

a statement from a group not directly involved in a Supreme Court case, indicating the group's opinion on the legal issue at hand.

 

 

Question 14

5 / 5 points

How can federal judges act as policy makers?

Question options:

a) 

By interpreting the law

b) 

By appointing other federal judges

c) 

By changing the Constitution

d) 

By creating laws

 

 

Question 15

5 / 5 points

What type of opinion is written by one or more of the justices who disagree with the majority's decision?

Question options:

a) 

Legal opinion

b) 

Majority opinion

c) 

Concurring opinion

d) 

Dissenting opinion

 

 

Question 16

5 / 5 points

What court took the Supreme Court in a liberal (Democratic) direction?

Question options:

a) 

Rehnquist Court

b) 

Roberts Court

c) 

Warren Court

d) 

Jay Court

 

 

Question 17

5 / 5 points

When there’s conflict in how a circuit court of appeals applied a law, what typically results?

Question options:

a) 

The appeals court representing the smallest population sets the precedence.

b) 

The Supreme Court reviews the case.

c) 

The DC Circuit Court settles the difference.

d) 

The appeals court representing the highest population sets the precedence.

 

 

Question 18

5 / 5 points

Why does the Supreme Court agree to hear such a relatively small number of cases in a year?

Question options:

a) 

It can only accept cases appealed from the state Supreme Courts.

b) 

The Supreme Court is only allowed 80 cases per year by law.

c) 

The Supreme Court only picks cases in which the lower courts made a mistake.

d) 

It’s only one court and must reserve its time for substantial legal issues.

 

 

Question 19

5 / 5 points

The lowest level of the federal court system is the

Question options:

a) 

circuit court of appeal.

b) 

district court.

c) 

justice of the peace.

d) 

highest level of the state courts.

 

 

Question 20

5 / 5 points

With regard to the lower courts, the Supreme Court's primary responsibility is

Question options:

a) 

settling jurisdictional disputes between state and federal judges.

b) 

settling jurisdictional disputes among federal judges.

c) 

establishing legal precedents that will guide their decisions.

d) 

correcting any technical mistakes the lower courts make in the cases they hear.

              

C08 Quiz 5 The Presidency and the Legislature SCORE 90 PERCENT

Question 1

5 / 5 points

What branch of government has the power to declare war?

Question options:

a) 

Executive

b) 

Temporal

c) 

Judicial

d) 

Legislative

 

 

Question 2

5 / 5 points

Which of the president’s roles is in play when a President greets the leaders of foreign nations?

Question options:

a) 

Legislative leader

b) 

Commander-in-chief

c) 

Chief executive

d) 

Head of state

 

 

Question 3

5 / 5 points

Why do members of Congress pay such close attention to their constituents’ needs?

Question options:

a) 

Their constituents are the only people that can vote them in or out of office.

b) 

They’re constitutionally required to be gracious to their constituents.

c) 

It’s the right thing to do.

d) 

Their constituents tend to be super voters.

 

 

Question 4

5 / 5 points

What idea of presidential power holds that the president should be an administrator, carrying out the will of Congress?

Question options:

a) 

The legislative theory

b) 

The Jackson theory

c) 

The Whig theory

d) 

The stewardship theory

 

 

Question 5

5 / 5 points

Which part of the legislature has a rules committee?

Question options:

a) 

The Senate

b) 

The House of Representatives

c) 

The Agriculture Committee

d) 

The Foreign Affairs Committee

 

 

Question 6

0 / 5 points

What system of hiring federal employees was used throughout most of the 19th century?

Question options:

a) 

Professional system

b) 

The Jacksonian system

c) 

Patronage system

d) 

Merit system (Incorrect)

 

 

Question 7

5 / 5 points

How can clientele groups influence federal programs?

Question options:

a) 

They can lobby lawmakers regarding programs.

b) 

They can donate money to federal programs.

c) 

They provide a source of federal workers.

d) 

They can introduce laws.

 

 

Question 8

5 / 5 points

What’s a result of increased partisan identity in Congress?

Question options:

a) 

An increase in moderate members of Congress

b) 

An increase in compromise

c) 

Increased deadlock in Congress

d) 

Decreased deadlock in Congress

 

 

Question 9

0 / 5 points

What factor might account for heavily Republican and Democratic congressional districts other than gerrymandering?

Question options:

a) 

People are self-sorting into more heavily Republican and Democratic areas.

b) 

All people in the cities vote Democratic.

c) 

People have been moving from the Northeast of the country to the South and West. (incorrect)

d) 

The Constitution requires so many seats controlled by each major party.

 

 

Question 10

5 / 5 points

In modern politics, what’s changed recently in terms of presidential approval ratings?

Question options:

a) 

Presidents have been increasingly more popular.

b) 

Peoples’ approval of a president no longer depends on their own political identification.

c) 

Presidents tend to have their worst approval ratings in the first year.

d) 

Peoples’ approval of a president increasingly depends on their own political identification.

 

 

Question 11

5 / 5 points

What law requires that each bill introduced be referred to the proper committee?

Question options:

a) 

The Taft-Hartley Act

b) 

The Congress Reform Act of 1982

c) 

The Committee Reform Act

d) 

The Legislative Reorganization Act of 1946

 

 

Question 12

5 / 5 points

What term is used to refer to agencies carrying out decisions made by Congress?

Question options:

a) 

Policy implementation

b) 

Policy leadership

c) 

Policy negotiation

d) 

Regulatory rules

 

 

Question 13

5 / 5 points

What historical movement pushed for primary elections in the presidential nominee selection process?

Question options:

a) 

Progressive movement

b) 

Abolition movement

c) 

Nomination movement

d) 

Civil Rights movement

 

 

Question 14

5 / 5 points

Which of the president’s roles would be in play if a president is appointed ambassador?

Question options:

a) 

Chief Executive

b) 

Head of State

c) 

Commander-in-Chief

d) 

Chief Diplomat

 

 

Question 15

5 / 5 points

What part of the Constitution grants Congress the power to make all laws which shall be necessary and proper?

Question options:

a) 

Elastic Clause

b) 

Confidence Clause

c) 

Preamble

d) 

Power Clause

 

 

Question 16

5 / 5 points

What recourse does Congress have if a President vetoes a bill?

Question options:

a) 

Congress can’t override a presidential veto.

b) 

Congress can override a presidential veto with a majority vote in both houses.

c) 

Congress can override a presidential veto with a two-thirds vote in both houses.

d) 

Congress can pass a law removing a president’s power of veto.

 

 

Question 17

5 / 5 points

What term refers to redistricting in a way to benefit one political party?

Question options:

a) 

Gerrymandering

b) 

Overriding

c) 

Vetoing

d) 

Filibustering

 

 

Question 18

5 / 5 points

What feature of bureaucracy refers to a clear chain of command?

Question options:

a) 

Formalized rules

b) 

Job specialization

c) 

Hierarchical authority

d) 

Leadership command

 

 

Question 19

5 / 5 points

What’s a constitutional limit on a president’s power?

Question options:

a) 

The president can appoint close advisors.

b) 

Congress controls funding of government.

c) 

The president gets elected through the electoral college.

d) 

The courts interpret laws.

 

 

Question 20

5 / 5 points

What’s the name given to the staff organization that helps the president coordinate the activities of the executive branch?

Question options:

a) 

The Federal Bureau of Investigation

b) 

Executive Office of the President

c) 

The Presidential Advisory Group

d) 

The National Security Administration

             

C08 Quiz 3 Federalism and Civil Liberties SCORE 95 PERCENT

Question 1

5 / 5 points

In what case can authorities conduct warrantless searches?

Question options:

a) 

Suspected terrorist activities

b) 

Searching a person’s house for firearms

c) 

Searching a person’s house for illegal drugs

d) 

Sobriety checkpoints

 

 

Question 2

5 / 5 points

What was the subject of the McCulloch v. Maryland case in 1819?

Question options:

a) 

Foreign treaties

b) 

Second Amendment rights

c) 

Voter rights

d) 

Implied power

 

 

Question 3

5 / 5 points

What term describes publishing false information that’s harmful to a person’s reputation?

Question options:

a) 

Slander

b) 

Propaganda

c) 

Fake news

d) 

Libel

 

 

Question 4

5 / 5 points

When can the government punish speech that advocates for the unlawful use of force?

Question options:

a) 

When it’s likely that it involves imminent lawless action

b) 

When it’s targeted at a certain ethnic group

c) 

When it’s in written form

d) 

When it involves detailed plans

 

 

Question 5

5 / 5 points

In recent years, what’s been the result of fiscal federalism?

Question options:

a) 

An increase in the national government’s influence

b) 

An increase in voter participation

c) 

A decrease in voter participation

d) 

An increase in state government influence

 

 

Question 6

5 / 5 points

What kind of governmental system would be favored by people who wanted to keep some power within the states?

Question options:

a) 

Sovereignty

b) 

Federalism

c) 

Autocracy

d) 

Unitary

 

 

Question 7

5 / 5 points

What was an unintended interpretation of the 14th
Amendment?

Question options:

a) 

Corporations being treated as persons and protected from much regulation by the states

b) 

To provide equal protection of the laws

c) 

To protect newly freed slaves

d) 

To take the power to grant citizenship away from the states

 

 

Question 8

5 / 5 points

What was a result of the Supreme Court’s Schenck v. United States decision?

Question options:

a) 

The government would be able to suspend  First Amendment rights in an unlimited manner in times of emergency.

b) 

The government is always allowed to prohibit certain times of expression in times of war.

c) 

The government has to demonstrate that expression presents a clear and present danger before it can prohibit that expression.

d) 

The government wouldn’t be allowed to prohibit anti-war speech in a time of war.

 

 

Question 9

5 / 5 points

What was a weakness of dual federalism?

Question options:

a) 

The government overall had too much power to interfere with business.

b) 

The national government ended up with less power.

c) 

Neither state nor national government had the power to effectively regulate big business.

d) 

States ended up with less power.

 

 

Question 10

5 / 5 points

How was the power of the states weakened by the 15th
Amendment?

Question options:

a) 

The states lost the power to issue money.

b) 

The states gained the right to grant citizenship.

c) 

The states now had to pay federal taxes.

d) 

The federal government gained the right to grant citizenship.

 

 

Question 11

5 / 5 points

The First Amendment protects people’s speech from what?

Question options:

a) 

Getting banned from a private social media platform

b) 

Being shunned

c) 

Being fired from a private company

d) 

Government punishment

 

 

Question 12

5 / 5 points

What best describes the founding fathers’ views toward centralized authority?

Question options:

a) 

There was a mistrust of centralizing power in one person or one office.

b) 

The founding fathers wanted a single branch of government.

c) 

The founding fathers wanted an all-powerful executive.

d) 

There was great trust placed in a strong centralized government

 

 

Question 13

5 / 5 points

How’s a block grant different from a categorical grant?

Question options:

a) 

Categorical grants must be used only for a designated activity.

b) 

Block grants must be paid back.

c) 

Categorical grants must be paid back.

d) 

Block grants must be used only for a designated activity.

 

 

Question 14

5 / 5 points

What’s been a driver of the development of federalism through time?

Question options:

a) 

The influence of foreign governments

b) 

Contending interests and the country’s needs

c) 

Constitutional language

d) 

Voters voting on changing the federal system

 

 

Question 15

5 / 5 points

Which of the following wouldn’t have First  Amendment protection?

Question options:

a) 

A news article

b) 

Political speech

c) 

Obscenity

d) 

Violent movies

 

 

Question 16

5 / 5 points

What was added to the Constitution as a way to limit the government’s influence in peoples’ lives?

Question options:

a) 

The Federalist Papers

b) 

The Declaration of Independence

c) 

The Addendums

d) 

The Bill of Rights

 

 

Question 17

5 / 5 points

What was the doctrine of nullification in the 1800s?

Question options:

a) 

A national government had a constitutional right to nullify a state law.

b) 

An individual could nullify a local law.

c) 

A state had a constitutional right to nullify a national law.

d) 

A local government could nullify a state law.

 

 

Question 18

0 / 5 points

What’s an enumerated power?

Question options:

a) 

A power specifically listed in the Constitution

b) 

A power allowed only to the national level of government (incorrect)

c) 

A power that applies only to the states

d) 

A power implied in the Constitution

 

 

Question 19

5 / 5 points

Where do local governments derive their authority?

Question options:

a) 

The Constitution

b) 

The Bill of Rights

c) 

The federal government

d) 

State governments

 

 

Question 20

5 / 5 points

Why is it difficult to prosecute a news organization for libel of public officials?

Question options:

a) 

It requires proof of actual malice.

b) 

News organizations are free from prosecution.

c) 

Public officials are free from prosecution.

d) 

News organizations are free to lie about public officials.

            

C08 Quiz 2 The Constitution SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1

5 / 5 points

What was a goal of those who wrote the Federalist Papers?

Question options:

a) 

Expanding the country to the Pacific coast

b) 

Creating and ratifying a new constitution

c) 

Supporting and keeping the Articles of Confederation

d) 

Returning to the control of Great Britain

Question 2

5 / 5 points

What level of government did the Bill of Rights originally apply to?

Question options:

a) 

State

b) 

Only Northern States

c) 

Local

d) 

Federal

Question 3

5 / 5 points

What amendment to the Constitution involves freedom of the press?

Question options:

a) 

24th Amendment

b) 

15th Amendment

c) 

5th Amendment

d) 

1st Amendment

Question 4

5 / 5 points

What plan proposed during the Constitutional Convention would create a bicameral legislature?

Question options:

a) 

The Connecticut Plan

b) 

The Virginia Plan

c) 

The New York Plan

d) 

The New Jersey Plan

Question 5

5 / 5 points

Why did the federal government under the Articles of Confederation have difficulty raising money?

Question options:

a) 

The country was in a deep economic depression.

b) 

Britain was demanding was reparations.

c) 

Taxes were illegal.

d) 

It couldn’t levy taxes.

Question 6

5 / 5 points

During the Constitutional Convention, what was the main disagreement involving slavery?

Question options:

a) 

Whether or not to abolish slavery

b) 

Whether or not to allow slavery in Northern states

c) 

Whether or not to grant citizenship to slaves

d) 

How to count slaves in terms of representation and taxation

Question 7

5 / 5 points

What plan proposed during the Constitutional Convention would favor large population states in terms of representation?

Question options:

a) 

The Virginia Plan

b) 

The Connecticut Plan

c) 

The New Jersey Plan

d) 

The New York Plan

Question 8

5 / 5 points

During the Constitutional Convention, what kind of state would prefer the Virginia Plan?

Question options:

a) 

A large population state

b) 

A northern state

c) 

A southern state

d) 

A small population state

Question 9

5 / 5 points

What compromise came out of the fight over how to count slaves for purposes of taxation and representation?

Question options:

a) 

The Slavery Compromise

b) 

The Virginia Plan

c) 

The Great Compromise

d) 

The Three-Fifths Compromise

Question 10

5 / 5 points

Why are amendments to the Constitution rare?

Question options:

a) 

The amendment process was closed down after the Cold War.

b) 

Amendments are only allowed to be added once every ten years.

c) 

The amendment process requires a large majority of states to agree to changes.

d) 

Americans don’t want to change the Constitution.

Question 11

5 / 5 points

With the ratification of the Constitution in the United States, who had the power to select US senators?

Question options:

a) 

The judicial branch

b) 

The President

c) 

The common voters

d) 

State legislatures

Question 12

5 / 5 points

What’s the topic of Article V of the Constitution?

Question options:

a) 

Amending the Constitution

b) 

The Executive Branch

c) 

Federalism

d) 

The Judicial Branch

Question 13

5 / 5 points

What was the major result of the Marbury v. Madison Supreme Court case for the United States system of government?

Question options:

a) 

The Supreme Court decided that it couldn’t rule on the constitutionality of laws.

b) 

The president asserted his power of judicial review.

c) 

The Supreme Court asserted its power of judicial review.

d) 

Congress asserted its power of judicial review.

Question 14

5 / 5 points

What role did Shay’s rebellion play in the making of the Constitution?

Question options:

a) 

It helped convince American leaders that the central government under the Articles of Confederation was too weak.

b) 

It convinced leaders that the nation needed more territory to the West.

c) 

It convinced leaders of a need for a military controlled by each state.

d) 

It helped convince American leaders that the central government under the Articles of Confederation was too strong.

Question 15

5 / 5 points

What amendment protects property rights?

Question options:

a) 

1st Amendment

b) 

7th Amendment

c) 

17th Amendment

d) 

5th Amendment

Question 16

5 / 5 points

How is the American system of government different from parliamentary systems of government?

Question options:

a) 

In parliamentary systems, the executive and legislative branches are separate and co-equal.

b) 

In the American system, the voters elect representatives.

c) 

In the American system, the executive and legislative branches are combined.

d) 

In the American system, the executive and legislative branches are separate and co-equal.

Question 17

5 / 5 points

What would be an example of denial of power?

Question options:

a) 

Congress can’t outlaw the sale of certain goods or services.

b) 

Congress can’t pass laws raising taxes.

c) 

Congress can’t declare war.

d) 

Congress can’t pass ex post facto laws.

Question 18

5 / 5 points

Why does government, by its very nature, have the ability to threaten liberty?

Question options:

a) 

Government is voted in by the majority.

b) 

Government is unconstitutional.

c) 

Government can declare war.

d) 

Government has coercive power.

Question 19

5 / 5 points

Who selects federal judges?

Question options:

a) 

Federal judges are selected by Congress.

b) 

The people elect federal judges.

c) 

The president appoints judges; the Senate gets no say in the matter.

d) 

The president appoints judges; the Senate confirms.

Question 20

5 / 5 points

Why was the Constitutional Convention almost forced to accept the legality of slavery?

Question options:

a) 

Slavery was an important part of the economy for all states.

b) 

Constant slave revolts forced the founding fathers to push for the continuation of slavery.

c) 

The southern states wouldn’t sign on with a new government that banned slavery.

d) 

Enlightenment thinkers mostly supported the idea of slavery.

             

C08 Quiz 1 The Origins of American Government SCORE 95 PERCENT

Question 1

5 / 5 points

Which of the following would be a use of power but not authority?

Question options:

a) 

A judge ordering a payment from one party to another in a civil suit

b) 

Paying a police officer to not give you a speeding ticket

c) 

A police officer putting handcuffs on a suspected criminal

d) 

A shop owner paying his employee to stock shelves

Question 2

5 / 5 points

Which of the following could be considered a core American value?

Question options:

a) 

Equality

b) 

Segregation

c) 

Winning at all costs

d) 

Collective effort

Question 3

0 / 5 points

Which of the following would be a use of authority?

Question options:

a) 

A person paying another person to work a job

b) 

A person blocking entrance to a building (Incorrect)

c) 

A person bribing a judge to be favorable in court

d) 

A person blocking a roadway

Question 4

5 / 5 points

What agreement formally ended the American Revolutionary War?

Question options:

a) 

Treaty of Paris

b) 

Treaty of New York

c) 

Declaration of Independence

d) 

The Constitution

Question 5

5 / 5 points

How is authority different from power?

Question options:

a) 

Power is only held by government officials.

b) 

Authority is the use of power seen as legitimate by society.

c) 

Power is the ability to influence the world; authority is not.

d) 

Authority is the ability to influence the world; power is not.

Question 6

5 / 5 points

What would be the most glaring historical example of America failing to live up to its political ideal of equality?

Question options:

a) 

The income tax

b) 

World War 1

c) 

Slavery

d) 

The Great Depression

Question 7

5 / 5 points

What term is given to the idea that people are the ultimate source of authority and should have a voice in their governing?

Question options:

a) 

Equality

b) 

Freedom

c) 

Self-government

d) 

Individualism

Question 8

5 / 5 points

Confirmation bias is the tendency

Question options:

a) 

to interpret information in ways that reinforce what one already believes.

b) 

for media outlets to have political bias.

c) 

to believe false information.

d) 

to believe expert advice.

Question 9

5 / 5 points

A monarchy would most likely be based on what type of authority?

Question options:

a) 

Reward

b) 

Traditional

c) 

Charismatic

d) 

Legal-rational

Question 10

5 / 5 points

How is the United States’ political culture different from most other countries?

Question options:

a) 

Other countries tend to have a Constitution.

b) 

The United States is a capitalist society.

c) 

Other countries tend to have people that share a common ancestry.

d) 

The United States has a Constitution.

Question 11

5 / 5 points

Why is the study of politics included with a study of government?

Question options:

a) 

 A study of politics is always required by colleges before studying government.

b) 

 Politics is the study of the human mind.

c) 

Politics is the way people achieve positions of power in government.

d) 

 Politics is written into the US Constitution.

Question 12

5 / 5 points

_____________ would be considered one of America’s core political ideals.

Question options:

a) 

Individualism

b) 

Sacrifice

c) 

Collectivism

d) 

Authority

Question 13

5 / 5 points

What’s a risk that comes with the freedom of democracy?

Question options:

a) 

People aren’t free to vote.

b) 

People are free to make a profit when owning a business.

c) 

People are free to vote.

d) 

People are free to be misinformed.

Question 14

5 / 5 points

Who makes production, distribution, and pricing decisions in a free-market economy?

Question options:

a) 

The workers in a company

b) 

Private individuals and businesses

c) 

A panel of experts

d) 

The government

Question 15

5 / 5 points

How did the founding fathers attempt to check or limit the power of the majority of the people in the United States?

Question options:

a) 

By allowing for elections.

b) 

By adding the Bill of Rights to the Constitution.

c) 

By allowing for capitalism.

d) 

By only allowing white people to vote.

Question 16

5 / 5 points

The Constitution provides what kind of authority to office holders in the United States?

Question options:

a) 

Reward

b) 

Legal-rational

c) 

Traditional

d) 

Charismatic

Question 17

5 / 5 points

What was the name of the plan of government the United States had in place before the Constitution was put in place?

Question options:

a) 

The Committees of Correspondence

b) 

The Declaration of Independence

c) 

The Articles of Confederation

d) 

The American Plan

Question 18

5 / 5 points

Why are misinformed voters a problem for representative government?

Question options:

a) 

They’re making decisions based on incorrect information.

b) 

They’re voting for the Republican party.

c) 

They know what they don’t know.

d) 

They’re voting for the Democratic party.

Question 19

5 / 5 points

What’s one of the limits of majoritarianism?

Question options:

a) 

The public officials rarely listen to the voters’ desires.

b) 

It’s difficult to allow too many people to vote.

c) 

The public only pays attention to a few issues that the government needs to address.

d) 

The public has too much power.

Question 20

5 / 5 points

All governments have what three powers?

Question options:

a) 

Legislative, executive, temporal

b) 

Legislative, governmental, judicial

c) 

Legislative, executive, judicial

d) 

Legislative, executive, governmental

         

MB641 Stand Alone Project – The Marketing Plan

Stand-Alone Project: The Marketing Plan

You should begin working on the Stand-Alone Project early in the course. Each assignment provides a benchmark for completing the Stand-Alone Project in a timely manner while working through the course. You will find this information in the “Stand-Alone Project Benchmark” section of each assignment.

The Stand-Alone Project requires you to assume the role of the director of marketing for an organization.  You have been tasked with developing a marketing plan for the promotion of your organization’s newest product or service. Your deliverable is to create a marketing plan that includes the following parts.  Your Stand-Alone Project responses should be both grammatically and mechanically correct, and formatted in the same fashion as the project itself.  If there is a Part A, your response should identify a Part A, etc.  In addition, you must appropriately cite all resources used in your response and document in a bibliography using APA style.   (A 22-page, double-spaced response is required for the combination of Parts A through E.)

 

Part A

 

Executive Summary:  After completing your marketing plan, write a brief summary that concisely captures the essence of the plan, including your rationale.  Place it on its own page as the first element of your Stand-Alone Project. Your executive summary can be a couple of paragraphs to a page in length. 

 

 

 

Part B

 

Product Description:  Determine the product or service that you will promote. The product may be for either the consumer or the business-to-business markets. Provide a general background and description of your proposed product or service and its associated industry. Include in your discussion, the product’s key characteristics, features and options, and benefits. This part of your project will be approximately one (1) page long. 

 

 

 

Part C

Situation Analysis:  Conduct a situation analysis, including a SWOT analysis. Your situation analysis should include the following components.  (138 points)

 

1.

 

Market Summary:  Conduct a market analysis and provide market segmentation by determining the target consumer groups and how the target market is divided. Discuss market needs, trends, and growth. Define your target market in terms of user behavior, demographics, and lifestyle. It will take you approximately six (6) pages to report your market summary. 

 

2.

 

SWOT Analysis:  Based on your research findings, conduct your SWOT analysis. Include three (3) internal strengths and three (3) internal weaknesses, as well as three (3) external opportunities and three (3) external threats. Your external analysis must include identification and discussion of your competitors, including any brands, forms, and generics. Research how competitors’ offerings compare with one another in terms of strengths, weaknesses, and other characteristics, determining how they would impact the sale and distribution of your product. The SWOT analysis should also address market potential, consumer behaviors, and environmental impact. Your SWOT analysis will comprise approximately five (5) pages of your project.

 

 

 

Part D

 

Marketing Strategy:  This is your game plan for introducing your product, based on your research and analysis thus far. In this part, you will complete the following components. You will need approximately six (6) pages for this discussion.

 

1.

Objectives:  You must define your marketing and financial objectives: that is, what you hope to achieve with your marketing program. Objectives must be specific, measurable, and quantifiable. List at least five (5) objectives.

 

2.

Target Markets:  Here you will identify and describe those market segments to which you will direct your marketing program. The more you know about your target markets, the greater your chances of success. Use any of the tools discussed in the course to define and describe them with as much demographic and psychographic detail as possible. You should target at least two (2) market segments.

 

3.

Positioning:  Here you will establish your product’s competitive position relative to your competition in the market. Your product position should be based on and discussed relative to your five (5) objectives.

 

4.

Marketing Mix: Discuss how you will price, promote, and distribute your product or service. Include two (2) promotion options and two (2) possible distribution channels.

 

 

 

Part E

Controls:  Describe your controls. Include your start-up costs, monthly budget, and expected return on investment (ROI).  You will need approximately two (2) pages for this discussion.

 

 

 

NOTE:  Specific supporting information is available from many secondary research sources, including the following.

 

1.

Company Web sites and literature

 

2.

Industry trade show observations and contacts

 

3.

Ashworth’s online library, ProQuest

 

4.

Online databases, including DIALOG, Lexis-Nexis, EBSCO, First Source, PROMPT, Trade & Industry, and Investext

 

5.

TV networks

 

6.

Hoover’s

 

7.

Investment houses and brokers

 

8.

Dow Jones/Factiva