C11E Assignment 8

ASSIGNMENT 08

C11E Macroeconomics

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

 

Part A

 

1.      Why is the money multiplier in the United States smaller than the inverse of the required reserve ratio? Provide one (1) reason.

2.      Explain why depositing cash into a checking account does not change the money supply. Provide one (1) supporting fact.

3.      Explain why the money supply does not change when one individual writes a check to another. Provide one (1) supporting fact.

 

Part B

 

1.      Describe one (1) reason why the flexibility of wages and prices tend to favor the Keynesian economic view in the short run and one (1) reason why the flexibility of wages and prices tend to favor the classical economic view in the long run.

 

2.      Refer the figure below and explain what happens in each graph (A, B, and C) when an economy is moving from a recession (point a) back to full employment.

 

 

 

                 

HCS440 Week-4 (2018) Public Health Tools and Method Study Guide

            Public Health Tools and Methods Study Guide

 

As a team, complete the following table in which you identify 4 to 6 tools or methods used to address financial and economic challenges in the health care industry. An example has been provided.

You must include proper APA in text references in the appropriate blocks and the reference list must be at the bottom of this worksheet. 

 

Resources: this week’s readings, the Economic Tools in the Public Health Economics and Tools section on the CDC website, the Department of Health and Human Services website, and other resources as needed that are available through additional research.

 

Tool/method

Identify the purpose and use of the tool or method

Identify the organizations that could use this tool or method

Return-on-Investment Forecasting Calculator (ROI Calculator)

This tool evaluates the net financial benefits of initiatives designed to improve health care quality and reduce costs.

Two modules allow Medicaid stakeholders to develop ROI forecasts for initiatives designed to improve health care quality and reduce costs.  This example cannot be included in your 4 to 6 tool requirement. 

Hospitals, Insurance Companies, most any health care business, grant writers, and most any business in general would benefit from using a Return-on-Investment Calculator. 

 

 

 

           

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

HCS440 Week-3 (2018) Funding Health Care Services

Research health care services (e.g., preventive screenings and preventive services, wellness programs, diet/food and nutritional services, and long-term care services) offered by non-profit and for-profit health care facilities.

Write a 1,050- to 1,250-word paper that addresses the following:

  • Analyze the historic trend of the sources of revenue of the health care services.
    • Address the types of new services hospitals and providers have added or put an increased focus on in the past two decades to increase their overall revenue.
  • Analyze the billing and reimbursement processes of health care services.
    • Explain how the triangular relationship between patient, insurance company payer, and the health care provider is different than a business transaction in other industries. How does this affect how much and how long it takes for a health care provider to be reimbursed?
  • Explain the economic impact of non-profit vs. for-profit health care services.
    • Explain the advantages and disadvantages of being a non-profit health care facility compared to one that is operated for profit.

        

HCS440 Week 5 (2018) Benchmark Assignment—The Demand of Health Care Services Workshop Proposal Part ll

Imagine you have been asked to deliver a two-part informative workshop at a local health care expo by your Director of Community Outreach. Before he approves your workshop, you have to submit a proposal for each workshop that discusses the content you would like to present.

The first half was geared to the health consumer while this second half of the workshop is more detailed and provides health care administrators with better understanding of financial and economic tools used in the health care industry, particularly cost-benefit analysis. It is important that your audience understands possible challenges in the cost of health care services as well as what impact consumers and health care reform have on the availability of health care services. You also will discuss a specific population within health care (e.g., people with diabetes, people with mental health, etc.) and their needs.

Proposal Part ll

Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which you present the content you would like to discuss in the workshop.

Include the following in your paper:

  • Analyze the use of cost-benefit analysis in health care.
    • What cost-benefit techniques are used by providers of health care services? 
    • What impact does the mix of fixed costs vs. variable costs have on a cost-benefit analysis scenario? Is it better to have more fixed costs or less?
  • Analyze common methods and tools used to address financial and economic challenges in the health care industry.
    • What is the role of health insurance companies in managing the cost and efficiency of the delivery of health care services?
    • How do billing and reimbursement processes affect providers of health care services as well as organizations/individuals paying for the services?
  • Analyze the changes in health care services to meet the needs of an ever-changing population. For this bullet, select a population to concentrate on (e.g., people with diabetes, people with mental health etc.).
    • What are the challenges of delivering health care services to your selected population? What are the ethical implications associated with the challenges?
    • What are the new types of health care services that have evolved to support your population?
    • What impact does the increase of preventive care services have on the health of your population?
  • Analyze the drivers and barriers for health care reform.
    • Currently, what role does the government play in the delivery of health care services to consumers?
    • What are the challenges and/or problems in providing/requiring health insurance for all consumers?

Cite at least 4 sources, including your textbook.

           


PY365 Lesson 4 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1
What was the original purpose of Operation Shamrock?
Question options:
Intercept all international telegrams entering or leaving the United States
Wiretap all calls made from public telephone booths
Scan email messages to identify drug dealers
Read all letters going between the United States and Ireland
Question 2
Most commentators cite the benefits of privacy as a reason why people ought to have some privacy rights. A right that benefits society is called a __________ right.
Question options:
Constitutional
legal
natural
prudential
Question 3
The Children's Online Privacy Protection Act:
Question options:
makes it illegal for an online service to request a credit card number from a child 17 years old and younger.
requires online services to create aliases for all customers who are 17 years old and younger.
makes it illegal for children 12 years and younger to participate in chat rooms.
requires online services to obtain parental consent before collecting any information from children 12 years old and younger.
Question 4
According to the Employee Polygraph Protection Act, which organization(s) cannot administer lie detector tests to job applicants?
Question options:
Local governments
State governments
Federal government
Private employers
Question 5
After Congress ruled that wiretapping was illegal, the FBI:
Question options:
ceased all wiretapping activity.
continued wiretapping people secretly.
convinced Congress to grant it an exemption from the ban.
began wiretapping every member of Congress.
Question 6
After the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001, which U.S. governmental agency collected telephone call records of tens of millions of Americans without a court order?
Question options:
Central Intelligence Agency
Department of Homeland Security
Federal Bureau of Investigation
National Security Administration
Question 7
The Video Privacy Protection Act:
Question options:
prohibits video stores from disclosing rental records without the written consent of the customer.
prohibits DVD manufacturers from installing software that sends reports over the Internet every time a DVD is played.
makes it legal to send "adult" DVDs through the mail without a warning label on the envelope.
prohibits the government from prosecuting minors who play "adult" DVDs in their own home.
Question 8
The Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act:
Question options:
gives consumers the right to request a free copy of their credit report every year.
allows credit bureaus to sell personal financial information they have gathered.
makes it possible for a consumer to declare bankruptcy without harming his or her credit rating.
ensures that people with criminal convictions are still able to obtain credit.
Question 9
The OneDOJ database:
Question options:
is a new, national database that consolidates records from federal, state, and local law enforcement agencies.
will give state and local police officers access to information provided by five federal law enforcement agencies.
combines records from all U.S. governmental agencies into a single database that can be used by data mining by the FBI.
received the endorsement of the ACLU for its innovative privacy-protection measures.
Question 10
The Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution has to do with:
Question options:
freedom of speech and religion.
search warrants.
the right to bear arms.
quartering of soldiers in private homes.
Question 11
Information that you have provided to an organization that has the right to share it with other organizations is called:
Question options:
public information.
personal information.
a public record.
transparent information.
Question 12
A policy that requires the consumer to explicitly give permission before an organization can share information with another organization is called:
Question options:
fair use.
full disclosure.
nondisclosure.
opt-in.
Question 13
Which of the following laws does NOT provide some sort of authorization for governmental wiretapping?
Question options:
Title III of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act
Electronic Communications Privacy Act
Federal Communications Act
Communications Assistance for Law Enforcement Act
Question 14
The Third Amendment to the U.S. Constitution has to do with:
Question options:
freedom of speech and religion.
search warrants.
the right to bear arms.
quartering of soldiers in private homes.
Question 15
The Fair Credit Reporting Act:
Question options:
gives consumers the right to request a free copy of their credit report every year.
ensures that information about criminal convictions does not haunt a consumer's credit report forever.
is designed to promote the accuracy of credit reports.
makes it possible for a consumer to declare bankruptcy without harming his or her credit rating.
Question 16
Who wrote that every violation of a “privacy right” is also a violation of another right?
Question options:
Stanley Benn
Louis Brandeis
Morton Levine
Judith Jarvis Thomson
Question 17
The FBI's National Crime Information Center database:
Question options:
contains more than 39 million records.
has information about every American citizen.
has never led to a false arrest.
is updated only once a week to give the FBI time to check the accuracy of the data.
Question 18
The Census Bureau has not always kept confidential the information it has collected. According to the textbook, this became apparent:
Question options:
during the Civil War.
after the attack on Pearl Harbor.
during the Vietnam War.
during the first Gulf War.
Question 19
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act:
Question options:
ensures that a consumer can keep the same health care provider even when he or she changes employers.
attempts to limit the exchange of information among health care providers to that information necessary to care for the patient.
ensures that a consumer can sue doctors and hospitals for medical malpractice.
ensures that doctors and hospitals can counter sue patients who file frivolous medical malpractice claims.
Question 20
Some people support the development of digital cash because it would:
Question options:
allow anonymous electronic transactions.
make it easier for law enforcement agencies to detect money laundering.
eliminate the problem of identity theft.
increase the amount of money given to charitable organizations.
     

PY360 Lesson 2 Exam SCORE 95 PERCEN

Question 1
The act of assuming someone else's electronic identity is called:
Question options:
identity theft.
masking.
networking.
spamming.
Question 2
According to John Stuart Mill's Principle of Harm, the only ground on which the government should intervene in the conduct of an individual is when:
Question options:
the individual is breaking the law.
it would clearly be to the benefit of the individual.
the individual is under 18 or over 65.
it would prevent harm to others.
Question 3
Kimberly Young's test for Internet addiction is based on the diagnosis of:
Question options:
pathological gambling.
obsessive/compulsive behavior.
chronic sleeplessness.
anxiety disorders.
Question 4
A Korean cybercafé where people play on-line, persistent games is called a:
Question options:
coffee clubhouse.
computer commons.
PC bang.
Tenretni (Internet spelled backwards).
Question 5
Which of the following laws was upheld as constitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court?
Question options:
Communications Decency Act
Child Online Protection Act
Child Internet Protection Act
All of these laws were upheld as constitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court.
Question 6
A blog is a:
Question options:
character in Lineage, a popular on-line game.
personal journal kept on the Web.
person who assumes a false identity in a chat room.
special symbol visible on displays that show Unicode characters.
Question 7
Which of the following is NOT an example of cyberbullying?
Question options:
Spreading lies.
"Outing".
Forwarding spam.
Tricking someone into revealing personal information.
Question 8
Which of these is NOT an example of direct censorship?
Question options:
Government monopolization
Self-censorship
Pre-publication review
Licensing and registration
Question 9
The Internet and __________ are powerful and flexible tools that support a wide variety of social interactions.
Question options:
the telephone system
email
social web sites
instant messaging
Question 10
The volume of spam is increasing because:
Question options:
companies have found it to be effective.
it is 100 times less expensive than a traditional flyer sent via the U.S. mail.
some people respond to spam advertisements.
All of the above
Question 11
A wiki is a(n):
Question options:
online encyclopedia.
personal journal kept on the Web.
electronic profile constructed automatically by a Web browser.
Web site that allows multiple people to contribute and edit its content.
Question 12
Trying to create a list of valid email addresses by sending email to randomly generated addresses and seeing which ones are delivered is called:
Question options:
a direct attack.
identity theft.
spamming.
a dictionary attack.
Question 13
The __________ Amendment to the Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and freedom of the press.
Question options:
Fifth
First
Second
Sixth
Question 14
Messages embedded in files transferred from one computer to another are commonly called:
Question options:
email.
the World Wide Web.
software.
the operating system.
Question 15
The Enlightenment view of addiction is that:
Question options:
there is nothing wrong with addiction.
addiction is not real.
addiction can never be overcome by will-power alone.
people are responsible for the choices they make.
Question 16
In the United States, freedom of expression is:
Question options:
guaranteed by the Fourth Amendment to the United States Constitution.
a positive right.
limited to political speech.
not an absolute right.
Question 17
The attempt to deceive Internet users into disclosing personal information through the use of official-looking emails is called:
Question options:
identity theft.
deceiving or faking.
phishing.
spoofing.
Question 18
Unsolicited, bulk, commercial email is commonly called:
Question options:
spam.
hacking.
a cookie.
a Trojan horse.
Question 19
From the point of view of Kant or Mill, the responsibility for excessive Internet use lies with:
Question options:
society.
the government.
chat room predators.
the individual user.
Question 20
Many people are now using the Web not simply to download content, but to build communities and upload and share content they have created. This trend has been given the name:
Question options:
persistent online reality.
online networking.
Web 2.0.
interactive hypermedia.
     

Exam 250713RR – Sampling Distributions and Estimation; Hypothesis Testing

When you have completed your exam and reviewed your answers, click Submit Exam. Answers will not be recorded until you hit Submit Exam. If you need to exit before completing the exam, click Cancel Exam.

Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page break, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer.

 

1. Which of the following statements correctly compares the t-statistic to the z-score when creating a

confidence interval?

A. You can use t all the time, but for n ≥ 30 there is no need, because the results are almost identical if you use t or z.

B. The value of z relates to a normal distribution, while the value of t relates to a Poisson distribution.

C. Use t when the sample size is small, and the resulting confidence interval will be narrower.

D. Using t is easier because you do not have to worry about the degrees of freedom, as you do with z.

 

2. Nondirectional assertions lead only to _______-tail tests.

A. one

B. right

C. two

D. left

 

3. A portfolio manager was analyzing the price-earnings ratio for this year's performance. His boss said that the average price-earnings ratio was 20 for the many stocks that his firm had traded, but the portfolio  manager felt that the figure was too high. He randomly selected a sample of 50 price-earnings ratios and found a mean of 18.17 and a standard deviation of 4.60. Assume that the population is normally distributed, and test at the 0.01 level of significance. Which of the following is the correct decision rule for the manager to use in this situation?

A. If t > 2.68 or if t < –2.68, reject H0.

B. Because –2.81 falls in the rejection region, reject H0. At the 0.01 level, the sample data suggest that the average priceearnings

ratio for the stocks is less than 20.

C. If z > 2.33, reject H0.

D. Because 2.81 is greater than 2.33, reject H0. At the 0.01 level, the sample data suggest that the average price-earnings ratio

for the stocks is less than 20.

 

4. What is the rejection region for a two-tailed test when α = 0.05?

A. z > 2.575

B. |z | > 1.96

C. |z | > 1.645

D. |z | > 2.575

 

5. Consider a null hypothesis stating that the population mean is equal to 52, with the research hypothesis that the population mean is not equal to 52. Assume we have collected 38 sample data from which we computed a sample mean of 53.67 and a sample standard deviation of 3.84. Further assume the sample data appear approximately normal. What is the test statistic?

A. –2.64

B. 2.68

C. 2.64

D. –2.68

 

6. When the confidence coefficient is large, which of the following is true?

A. Its value is 1.0 or larger.

B. Its value is close to 1.0, but not larger than 1.0.

C. The confidence interval is narrow.

D. It's more likely that the test will lead you to reject the null hypothesis.

 

7. If the level of significance (α) is 0.005 in a two-tail test, how large is the nonrejection region under the

curve of the t distribution?

A. 0.9975

B. 0.995

C. 0.005

D. 0.050

 

8. What is the primary reason for applying a finite population correction coefficient?

A. When the sample is a very small portion of the population, the correction coefficient is required.

B. If you don't apply the correction coefficient, your confidence intervals will be too broad, and thus less useful in decision making.

C. If you don't apply the correction coefficient, you won't have values to plug in for all the variables in the confidence interval formula.

D. If you don't apply the correction coefficient, your confidence intervals will be too narrow, and thus overconfident.

 

9. If a teacher wants to test her belief that more than five students in college classes typically receive A as a grade, she'll perform _______-tail testing of a _______.

A. one, proportion

B. two, mean

C. two, proportion

D. one, mean

 

10. Consider a null hypothesis stating that the population mean is equal to 52, with the research hypothesis that the population mean is not equal to 52. Assume we have collected 38 sample data from which we computed a sample mean of 53.67 and a sample standard deviation of 3.84. Further assume the sample data appear approximately normal. What is the p-value you would report for this test?

A. 0.0041

B. 0.0037

C. 0.4963

D. 0.0074

 

11. A random sample of 10 employees is selected from a large firm. For the 10 employees, the number of days each was absent during the past month was found to be 0, 2, 4, 2, 5, 1, 7, 3, 2, and 4. Of the following values, which would you use as the point estimate for the average number of days absent for all the firm's employees?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 30

D. 2.5

 

12. In sampling without replacement from a population of 900, it's found that the standard error of the

mean, , is only two-thirds as large as it would have been if the population were infinite in size. What is

the approximate sample size?

A. 400

B. 500

C. 200

D. 600

 

13. The power of a test is the probability of making a/an _______ decision when the null hypothesis is

_______.

A. correct, false

B. incorrect, true

C. correct, true

D. incorrect, false

 

14. Because of the popularity of movies as an entertainment medium for adolescents, an entrepreneur plans to do a national study of the average cost of a movie ticket. If you assume that s = $0.50, what sample size would the entrepreneur have to take to be 95% confident that the estimate was within $0.25 of the true mean ticket prices?

A. 4

B. 15

C. 16

D. 8

 

15. To schedule appointments better, the office manager for an ophthalmologist wants to estimate the

average time that the doctor spends with each patient. A random sample of 49 is taken, and the sample mean is 20.3 minutes. Assume that the office manager knows from past experience that the standard deviation is 14 minutes. She finds that a 95% confidence interval is between 18.3 and 22.3 minutes. What is the point estimate of the population mean, and what is the confidence coefficient?

A. 20.3, 0.95

B. 18.3, 0.95

C. 18.3, 95%

D. 20.3, 95%

 

16. What sample size is required from a very large population to estimate a population proportion within 0.05 with 95% confidence? Don't assume any particular value for p.

A. 385

B. 271

C. 767

D. 38

 

17. For 1996, the U.S. Department of Agriculture estimated that American consumers would have eaten, on average, 2.6 pounds of cottage cheese throughout the course of that year. Based on a longitudinal study of 98 randomly selected people conducted during 1996, the National Center for Cottage Cheese Studies found an average cottage cheese consumption of 2.75 pounds and a standard deviation of s = 14 ounces. Given this information, which of the following statements would be correct concerning a two-tail test at the 0.05 level of significance?

A. We can conclude that the average cottage cheese consumption in America is at least 0.705 pound more or less than 2.75

pounds per person per year.

B. We can conclude that the average cottage cheese consumption in America isn't 2.6 pounds per person per year.

C. We can conclude that we can't reject the claim that the average cottage cheese consumption in America is 2.6 pounds per person per year.

D. We can conclude that the average cottage cheese consumption in America is actually 2.75 pounds per person per year.

 

18. A woman and her son are debating about the average length of a preacher's sermons on Sunday morning. Despite the mother's arguments, the son thinks that the sermons are more than twenty  minutes. For one year, he has randomly selected 12 Sundays and found an average time of 26.42 minutes with a standard deviation of 6.69 minutes. Assuming that the population is normally distributed and using a 0.05 level of significance, he wishes to determine whether he is correct in thinking that the average length of sermons is more than 20 minutes. What is the test statistic?

A. 0.95

B. –3.32

C. 3.32

D. 6.69

 

19. Determine which of the following four population size and sample size combinations would not require the use of the finite population correction factor in calculating the standard error.

A. N = 2500; n = 75

B. N = 1500; n = 300

C. N = 15,000; n = 1,000

D. N = 150; n = 25

 

20. A researcher wants to carry out a hypothesis test involving the mean for a sample of n = 20. While the true value of the population standard deviation is unknown, the researcher is reasonably sure that the population is normally distributed. Given this information, which of the following statements would be correct?

A. The researcher should use the z-test because the population is assumed to be normally distributed.

B. The t-test should be used because the sample size is small.

C. The researcher should use the z-test because the sample size is less than 30.

D. The t-test should be used because α and μ are unknown.


       


COM303 Week 8 FInal Exam SCORE 99 PERCENT

Question 1 (2 points)

 

Perception is considered selective because ____. 

Question 1 options:

a) 

there are too many stimuli competing for the attention of your senses

b) 

life’s lessons teach you to see the world in a particular way

c) 

culture teaches you the meaning of most of your experiences

d) 

once you perceive something in a particular manner that interpretation does not usually change

Question 2 (2 points)

 

Because we view the world through a subjective lens influenced by a number of variables, perception is considered: 

Question 2 options:

a) 

selective

b) 

learned

c) 

inaccurate

d) 

consistent

e) 

culturally determined

Question 3 (2 points)

 

Countries whose cultures reflect a comfort with uncertainty (low uncertainty avoidance) include Greece, Portugal, and Guatemala.

Question 3 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 4 (2 points)

 

Cultural patterns are integrated and can be contradictory.

Question 4 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 5 (2 points)

 

For low-context cultures, the verbal message contains most of the information and very little is embedded in the context or the person’s nonverbal activity.

Question 5 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 6 (2 points)

 

Chinese culture has a strong focus on the present time orientation.

Question 6 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 7 (2 points)

 

Individual orientation vs. group orientation is thought of as one of the basic pattern variables that determine human action.

Question 7 options:

a) True

b) False

 

 

Question 8 (2 points)

 

The United States is among the top five countries for high power distance.

Question 8 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 9 (2 points)

 

Flexhumility cultures place less value on education than monumentalist ones.

Question 9 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 10 (2 points)

 

The GLOBE Study differentiated between two types of collectivism: 

Question 10 options:

a) 

in-group and societal

b) 

in-group and out-group

c) 

ethnic and inter-ethnic

d) 

local and national

e) 

selective and exhaustive

Question 11 (2 points)

 

What time orientation do most Americans in the United States favor? 

Question 11 options:

a) 

past

b) 

future

c) 

present

d) 

linearity

e) 

polychromic

Question 12 (2 points)

 

Perception is learned because once you perceive something in a particular way, which interpretation does not usually change.

Question 12 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 13 (2 points)

 

Identify which of the following is not among the five universal questions for cultures, according to Kluckhohn and Strodtbeck.  

Question 13 options:

a) 

what is the character of human nature?    

b) 

what is the relation of humankind to nature?; 

c) 

what is the value of wealth

d) 

what is the relationship of people to each other? 

e) 

what is the value placed on time?

Question 14 (2 points)

 

Optimism and emphasis on the future reflect which of Kohls American values? 

Question 14 options:

a) 

idealism

b) 

individualism

c) 

time and its control

d) 

change

e) 

privacy

 

Question 15 (2 points)

 

The extent to which members of a culture feel threatened by ambiguous and unknown situations is referred to as ____. 

Question 15 options:

a) 

uncertainty avoidance

b) 

tolerance for ambiguity

c) 

equivocality

d) 

ethnocentricity

e) 

neoplasticity

Question 16 (2 points)

 

Perceptions of self that set you apart from other people and life-forms are ____.           

Question 16 options:

a) 

human identities

b) 

societal identities

c) 

personal identities

d) 

identities of separation

e) 

identities of conformation

Question 17 (2 points)

 

Cyber and fantasy identities don’t exist.

Question 17 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 18 (2 points)

 

Phinney’s three stage model of identity acquisition includes: 

Question 18 options:

a) 

unexamined ethnic identity,ethnic identity search, ethnic achievement

b) 

biological inheritance, ethnic identification, ethnic presentation

c) 

​ethnic identification, ethnic clarification, ethnic emancipation

d) 

unexamined ethnic identity, examined ethnic identity, insulated ethnic identity

e) 

biological inheritance, unexamined ethnic identity, examined ethnic identity

Question 19 (2 points)

 

Racial and ethnic identity are the same thing.

Question 19 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 20 (2 points)

 

According to Hall, the three levels of identity that each individual has are personal, relational, and communal.

Question 20 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 21 (2 points)

 

Social identities can be based on all of the following except: 

Question 21 options:

a) 

demographic categories

b) 

roles

c) 

membership in formal and informal organization

d) 

associations or vocations; 

e) 

​all of these

 

Question 22 (2 points)

 

Which of the following is not a type of identity discussed in the text? 

Question 22 options:

a) 

organizational

b) 

personal

c) 

neurobiological

d) 

cyber

e) 

fantasy

Question 23 (2 points)

 

The process of creating and recreating cultural identity through communication is referred to as ____. 

Question 23 options:

a) 

conditioning

b) 

embedding

c) 

redacting

d) 

enacting

e) 

morphing

Question 24 (2 points)

 

One can have both a national and regional identity at the same time.

Question 24 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 25 (2 points)

 

An example of regional identity would be a/n: 

Question 25 options:

a) 

Italian

b) 

Southerner

c) 

American

d) 

Columbian

e) 

German

Question 26 (2 points)

 

Societal identity is ‘one’s sense of belonging to a particular cultural or ethnic group.

Question 26 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 27 (2 points)

 

Personal identity is what sets you apart from other out-group members and marks you as special or unique.

Question 27 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 28 (2 points)

 

Identity is important to the study of intercultural communication because it influences expectations about your own and others’ social roles.

Question 28 options:

a) True

b) False

 

 

Question 29 (2 points)

 

Identity is normally not associated with commemorative events.

Question 29 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 30 (2 points)

 

It is through communication that we are able to express and make known our similarities and dissimilarities to others.

Question 30 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 31 (2 points)

 

The frequent use of the word ‘I’ in American conversations reflects: 

Question 31 options:

a) 

ethnocentrism

b) 

the cultural value of the individual

c) 

elitism

d) 

 the cultural value of collectivism

Question 32 (2 points)

 

Differences in spelling between American English and that used in England were the result of ____. 

Question 32 options:

a) 

the natural evolution of language

b) 

a calculated effort

c) 

limited access to dictionaries and other resources in Colonial America

d) 

simple but repeated errors

Question 33 (2 points)

 

The principal difference between translation and interpretation is ____. 

Question 33 options:

a) 

contextual nuances in interpretation don’t apply to translation

b) 

written content is generally the focus of translation whereas interpretation involves spoken words

c) 

translation occurs as it is happening while interpretation occurs after the fact

d) 

the two terms are used synonymously to mean the same thing

Question 34 (2 points)

 

Communicative interaction, especially conversation, is not important to most Mexicans.

Question 34 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 35 (2 points)

 

The most common language among Internet users is English.

Question 35 options:

a) True

b) False

 

Question 36 (2 points)

 

Japanese language reflects the culture’s emphasis on one’s social position.

Question 36 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 37 (2 points)

 

Dialects reflect the variations in pronunciation that occur when people are speaking the same language.

Question 37 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 38 (2 points)

 

The idea that language is a dominant influence in shaping one’s worldview and perception of reality is commonly known as ____. 

Question 38 options:

a) 

the synergy of language and culture

b) 

the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis

c) 

the many-worlds interpretation

d) 

the perceptual interface

e) 

the linguistic theory of mind

Question 39 (2 points)

 

Argot is the specific term for specialized vocabulary shared by a group and  jargon is the more general term.

Question 39 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 40 (2 points)

 

The ‘noisy, animated speech’ form often associated with Arabs is normally limited to interactions with elders and superiors.

Question 40 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 41 (2 points)

 

Examples of regional accents in the United States include: 

Question 41 options:

a) 

Northern and Southern

b) 

Australian and Canadian

c) 

English and German

d) 

Coptic and Nordic

Question 42 (2 points)

 

Dialect refers to: 

Question 42 options:

a) 

pronunciation of shared vocabulary

b) 

someone who speaks two languages

c) 

differences in vocabulary and grammar

d) 

pronunciation of non-shared vocabulary

 

Question 43 (2 points)

 

What is the most important consideration when choosing an interpreter: 

Question 43 options:

a) 

language knowledge

b) 

dialect knowledge

c) 

specialized terminology

d) 

cultural knowledge

e) 

​all of these things

Question 44 (2 points)

 

Accents refer to differences in vocabulary, grammar, and even punctuation.

Question 44 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 45 (2 points)

 

Being mindful, monitoring your speech rate, and selecting appropriate vocabulary are all ways to improve intercultural communication competence.

Question 45 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 46 (2 points)

 

African Americans tend to use less inflection and vocal range than most white Americans.

Question 46 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 47 (2 points)

 

Identify the “unintentional” example of nonverbal communication: 

Question 47 options:

a) 

smiling to let a friend know you’re happy

b) 

giving a “thumbs up” sign when asked about how you did on your intercultural communication test

c) 

looking at your watch because you want to leave a conversation (Incorrect)

d) 

looking at your watch to see what time it is

Question 48 (2 points)

 

What dimension of nonverbal communication puts an increased burden on you whether you are the sender or the receiver? 

Question 48 options:

a) 

nonverbal sensitization

b) 

nonverbal ambiguity

c) 

nonverbal monomorphism

d) 

nonverbal polymorphism

e) 

nonverbal sensitivity

Question 49 (2 points)

 

A conceptualization in which time is viewed as a finite, scarce resource which must be rationed and controlled is referred to as: 

Question 49 options:

a) 

m-time

b) 

bounded time

c) 

p-time

d) 

unbounded time

e) 

f-time

 

Question 50 (2 points)

 

The “thumbs up” sign is considered positive in the U.S. as well as in Australia and West Africa.

Question 50 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 51 (2 points)

 

If a person say’s “ok” while gesturing with a ‘thumbs-up’ or ‘a-ok’ sign, what is the function o the nonverbal communication? 

Question 51 options:

a) 

regulating

b) 

repeating

c) 

substituting

d) 

creating identity

e) 

conforming display

Question 52 (2 points)

 

Which of the following is true about agreement gestures? 

Question 52 options:

a) 

they mean the same thing in every culture

b) 

always indicates agreement

c) 

are culturally based

d) 

​none of these

Question 53 (2 points)

 

Which of the following is true regarding the nonverbal message value of clothing? 

Question 53 options:

a) 

 it can convey social and economic status; 

b) 

moral standards

c) 

belief system

d) 

athletic abilities or interests

e) 

​all of these

Question 54 (2 points)

 

Umms, ers, likes, and you knows in a stream of speech are referred to as vocal segregates.

Question 54 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 55 (2 points)

 

According the spatial rules of the dominant U.S. culture, two people standing approximately 3 feet apart are likely to be: 

Question 55 options:

a) 

family or a close friend

b) 

business acquaintances

c) 

intimate partner or significant other

d) 

strangers

e) 

colleagues

Question 56 (2 points)

 

Nonverbal behavior has little role in regulating interactions.

Question 56 options:

a) True

b) False

 

Question 57 (2 points)

 

While all people use various movements to communicate, 

Question 57 options:

a) 

some movements are more common than others

b) 

culture teaches people how to use and interpret those movements

c) 

actors are better at it than others

d) 

it is only those movements that are innate

Question 58 (2 points)

 

The correct way to beckon or call someone over to you nonverbally is with: 

Question 58 options:

a) 

one hand palm up, fingers together, moving toward the body

b) 

cupping a hand palm down pulling fingers in toward the body

c) 

right hand up palm out fingers opening and closing

d) 

it depends on the cultural rules

Question 59 (2 points)

 

If you say “good job” while giving the ‘thumbs up’ sign, you are substituting the message with nonverbal communication.

Question 59 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 60 (2 points)

 

All of the following are purposes of silence except: 

Question 60 options:

a) 

give participants time to think

b) 

provide feedback

c) 

reward

d) 

punishment

e) 

suppress an emotion

Question 61 (2 points)

 

A holistic worldview results in a uniform approach to understanding the causes of illness.

Question 61 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 62 (2 points)

 

Which of the following would not help teachers communicate empathically? 

Question 62 options:

a) 

attend to student’s nonverbal and verbal behaviors

b) 

emphasize a competitive climate

c) 

accurately reflect and clarify feelings

d) 

be genuine and congruent

e) 

​none of these

Question 63 (2 points)

 

Cultures such as Germany and Israel view assertiveness as a deficit.

Question 63 options:

a) True

b) False

 

Question 64 (2 points)

 

When negotiating with Brazilians, representatives of American businesses should:           

Question 64 options:

a) 

emphasis the universal rather than the specific

b) 

emphasize task over relationship

c) 

emphasize group over individual

d) 

​none of these

Question 65 (2 points)

 

Ineffective communication strategies in multicultural classrooms include:

Question 65 options:

a) 

provide lots of opportunities to discuss global issues relevant to students

b) 

be sensitive to cultural customs that may differ from the mainstream

c) 

remind students that the classroom is a safe place for learning

d) 

encourage conversations that perpetuate us and them discussions

e) 

​none of these

Question 66 (2 points)

 

Chinese tend to think in terms of role fulfillment where employees are given a job role or title to fulfill, though they are not necessarily expected to perform the job.

Question 66 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 67 (2 points)

 

The general intercultural negotiation skills recommended include all of the following except ____. 

Question 67 options:

a) 

avoid and resist ambiguity

b) 

be prepared

c) 

develop sensitivity to the use of time

d) 

listen carefully

e) 

locate areas of agreement

Question 68 (2 points)

 

A person’s native language had deep significance because it is the seed of identity that blossoms as children grow.

Question 68 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 69 (2 points)

 

Mexican’s rarely use honorific titles.

Question 69 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 70 (2 points)

 

Chinese business culture is associated with all of the following except: 

Question 70 options:

a) 

a collectivist, high-context culture that diffuses decision-making responsibilities

b) 

Chinese make decisions based on relationships

c) 

rarely defer personal interests to those of the group

d) 

discourage independent expression

e) 

power relationships are the ultimate determinant of Chinese social interaction

 

Question 71 (2 points)

 

The Indian economy is sometimes compared to an elephant because it is not capable of running swiftly as some smaller “tiger-like” Asian economies but enjoys the advantage of being stable and less affected by upsets and disturbances.

Question 71 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 72 (2 points)

 

In the business sector, culture determines: 

Question 72 options:

a) 

protocol

b) 

management and leadership

c) 

decision-making

d) 

negotiation and conflict management

e) 

​all of these

Question 73 (2 points)

 

For the Chinese, a contract is a rigid agreement to which parties are expected to adhere precisely to the various provisions.

Question 73 options:

a) True

b) False

Question 74 (2 points)

 

The shared understanding of the meaning of communication and the behaviors appropriate for specific situations reflect what basic assumption?   

Question 74 options:

a) 

communication is culturally determined

b) 

communication is rule governed

c) 

communication has a consequence

d) 

communication is unavoidable

e) 

communication is dynamic

Question 75 (2 points)

 

Domestically, all of the following statements about businesses in the U.S. are false except ____.

Question 75 options:

a) 

increases in minority co-cultures have impacted both workplace and marketplace

b) 

minority owned businesses grew by about 45% between 2002-2007

c) 

more than 2.3 million businesses in the U.S. owned by Hispanics

d) 

most business transactions involve a culturally homogeneous population

 

       


PY365 Week 3 Threaded Discussion

Using examples, outline the benefits and limitations of Intellectual Property Protection.
(212 words with one references)
A number of courts have been faced with infringement claims arising in connection with Internet activities. In fact, most Internet-related disputes arise in the context of domain disputes. Please research the topic of Internet trademark infringement and provide at least one example. What is your opinion related to Internet trademark infringement?
(233 words with one reference)