BAM560 Strategic Management Final Exam

BAM560

Strategic Management

*Strategic Management: Concepts and Cases *

Strategic Management Final Examination

*Multiple Choice Questions *(Enter your answers on the enclosed answer
sheet)

1) During what stage of strategic management are a firm’s specific internal
strengths and weaknesses determined?

A) Feedback

B) Implementation

C) Goal-setting

D) Formulation

E) Evaluation

2) What step in the strategic development process involves mobilizing
employees and managers to put strategies into action?

A) Implementing strategy

B) Formulating strategy

C) Strategy evaluation

D) Competitive advantage

E) Strategic advantage

3) Which phase of strategic management is called the action phase?

A) Strategy implementation

B) Strategy formulation

C) Allocating resources

D) Strategy evaluation

E) Measuring performance

4)

BAM560 Strategic Management Final Exam

 

 BAM560

Strategic Management

Strategic Management: Concepts and Cases

Strategic Management Final Examination

 

Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1) During what stage of strategic management are a firm’s specific internal strengths and weaknesses determined?

A) Feedback

B) Implementation

C) Goal-setting

D) Formulation

E) Evaluation

 

2) What step in the strategic development process involves mobilizing employees and managers to put strategies into action?

A) Implementing strategy

B) Formulating strategy

C) Strategy evaluation

D) Competitive advantage

E) Strategic advantage

 

3) Which phase of strategic management is called the action phase?

A) Strategy implementation

B) Strategy formulation

C) Allocating resources

D) Strategy evaluation

E) Measuring performance

 

4) ________ is not a strategy-implementation activity.

A) Devising policies

B) Establishing annual objectives

C) Taking corrective actions`

D) Motivating employees

E) Allocating resources

 

5) ________ and ________ are external forces transforming business and society

today.

A) Corporate culture; stakeholders

B) Stakeholders; strategy

C) E-commerce; strategy

D) E-commerce; globalization

E) Strategy; globalization

Strategic Management

Final Examination

2

6) In December 2006, online sales in the U.S. rose by

A) 150 percent.

B) 10 percent.

C) 100 percent.

D) 25 percent.

E) 50 percent.

 

7) The one factor that has most significantly impacted the nature and core of

buying and selling in nearly all industries has been

A) corporate greed.

B) customer and employee focus.

C) the government.

D) the Internet.

E) political borders.

 

8) Specific results an organization seeks to achieve in pursuing its basic mission

are

A) rules.

B) mission.

C) policies.

D) objectives.

E) strategies.

 

9) In which phase of strategic management are annual objectives especially important?

A) Implementation

B) Control

C) Evaluation

D) Formulation

E) Management

 

10) What are guides to decision making?

A) Laws

B) Procedures

C) Goals

D) Rules

E) Policies

 

11) The changes that occurred when Robert Iger took over the reigns at Disney,

demonstrate which current trend in organizations?

A) Increased emphasis on strategic planning

B) Increased structuring of strategic management

C) Increased decentralizing of strategic management

D) Increased formalization of the strategic management process

E) Increased central planning of the strategic management process

 

12) According to research, organizations using strategic management are

________ than those that do not.

A) more complex

B) more profitable

C) less profitable

D) less complex

E) less static

 

13) According to Greenley, strategic management offers all of these benefits except that

A) it provides an objective view of management problems.

B) it encourages a favorable attitude toward change.

C) it maximizes the effects of adverse conditions and changes.

D) it creates a framework for internal communication among personnel.

E) it gives a degree of discipline and formality to the management of a business.

 

14) What is not a reason given for poor or no strategic planning in organizations?

A) Fire-fighting

B) Trust of management

C) Poor reward structure

D) Wasting of time

E) Being content with success

 

15) Principles of conduct that guide decision-making are known as

A) social responsibility requirements.

B) business ethics.

C) human rights.

D) nonprofit organization policies.

E) the Constitution

 

16) Ethical standards come out of ________ in a final analysis.

A) history and heritage

B) competitors

C) community involvement

D) stakeholder analysis

E) government

 

17) All of these are potential disadvantages of an international operation except

A) reduced tariffs and taxes.

B) complexity due to a multiple monetary system.

C) overestimated weaknesses and underestimated strengths of competitors.

D) differing languages, cultures and value systems.

E) all of these are potential disadvantages.

 

18) Which of these basic questions should a vision statement answer?

A) Who are our competitors?

B) What is our business?

C) Who are our employees?

D) What do we want to become?

E) Why do we exist?

 

19) Who is referred to as “the father of modern management?”

A) Smith

B) Deming

C) Drucker

D) Peters

E) McGinnis

 

20) The mission statement answers which question?

A) How can we improve ourselves?

B) What do we want to become?

C) Who are our stakeholders?

D) What is our business?

E) How can we increase profitability?

 

21) The vision statement answers which question?

A) Who are our stakeholders?

B) What do we want to become?

C) What is our business?

D) How can we increase profitability?

E) How can we improve ourselves?

 

22) In the process of developing a mission statement, it is important to involve

A) the board of directors only.

B) upper-level management only.

C) as few managers as possible.

D) as many managers as possible.

E) lower-level management only.

 

23) What can be used to promote unbiased views and to manage the development

of the mission statement more effectively?

A) An internal group

B) Surveys

C) Command-and-control

D) A committee of managers

E) A facilitator

 

24) Business Week reports that firms using mission statements have ________

percent higher return on certain financial measures than those without such

statements.

A) 15

B) 57

C) 54

D) 10

E) 30

 

25) All stakeholders

A) have environmental concerns as their top priority.

B) have the same claims and concerns about an organization.

C) have ownership rights in an organization.

D) have the same voting rights in an organization.

E) have claims and concerns about an organization, but these claims and con-

cerns vary.

 

26) The three characteristics of a mission statement are a declaration of attitude,

a declaration of social policy and

A) a profit orientation.

B) an employee orientation.

C) a customer orientation.

D) a shareholder orientation.

E) an environmental orientation.

 

27) A proactive environmental policy is likely to lead to

A) numerous liability suits.

B) reduced customer loyalty.

C) conservation of energy.

D) higher medical costs.

E) higher cleanup costs.

 

28) What happened to sales of big-rig trucks as a result of new federal regulations on emissions?

A) Production increased by 40 percent

B) Production decreased by 40 percent

C) The change had no impact on production

D) Production increased by 50 percent

E) Production decreased by 50 percent

 

29) The corporate social policy should be reaffirmed or changed during which phase of strategy development?

A) Strategy evaluation

B) Strategy formulation

C) Strategy implementation

D) Strategic mission

E) Strategy control

 

30) Which of the following dimensions are not recommended aspects of a mission statement?

A) Customers

B) Concern for employees

C) Markets

D) Self-concept

E) Strategies

31) Effective mission statements

A) become ineffective in the first year.

B) never require revision.

C) are usually changed every few years.

D) stand the test of time and require little revision.

E) are usually changed every few months.

 

32) The process of performing an external audit needs to include

A) only top level managers, as it’s a planning function.

B) stockholders and external government agencies

C) between 15 to 20 managers for it to be valid

D) primarily front-line supervisors

E) as many managers and employees as possible.

 

33) What effect do trends in the dollar’s value have on companies in different  industries and in different locations?

A) Insignificant and unequal

B) No significant impact

C) Marginal and equal

D) Significant and unequal

E) Significant and equal

 

34) In general, what happens to American goods in overseas markets when there is a strong dollar?

A) Cheaper

B) More attractive

C) More expensive

D) Less expensive

E) Desirable

 

35) When an industry relies heavily on government contracts, which forecasts can be the most important part of an external audit?

A) Competitive

B) Economic

C) Multinational

D) Political

E) Technological8 Final Examination Strategic Management

36) Who is Japan’s largest trading partner?

A) China

B) Mexico

C) Germany

D) U.S.

E) U.K.

 

37) Technological advancements can create new ________ advantages that are

more powerful than existing advantages.

A) economic

B) social

C) competitive

D) comparative

E) environmental

 

38) Which sector of the economy would be most impacted by technological developments?

A) Paper

B) Forestry

C) Textiles

D) Metals

E) Pharmaceuticals

 

39) Keeping strategies secret from employees and stakeholders can do all of the following except

A) inhibit employee and stakeholder commitment.

B) forego valuable employee or stakeholder input.

C) provide competitive advantage to competitors.

D) inhibit employee and stakeholder communication.

E) inhibit employee and stakeholder understanding.

 

40) Intensity of competition ________ in lower-return industries.

A) is lowest

B) is not important

C) is highest

D) is non-existent

E) fluctuates Final Examination Strategic Management 9

41) Whenever new firms can easily enter a particular industry, the intensity of

competitiveness among firms

A) decreases.

B) increases.

C) fluctuates.

D) neutralizes.

E) stays the same.

 

42) What level of bargaining power do consumers have when the products being

purchased are standard or undifferentiated?

A) Marginal

B) High

C) Negative

D) Low

E) Not necessary

 

43) Because of the Internet, barriers to personal and business success are

A) acting like glass walls.

B) being eliminated.

C) lower.

D) significantly enhanced.

E) being built.

 

44) The international challenge faced by U.S. business is twofold

A) how to gain and maintain exports to other nations and how to defend domes-

tic markets against imported goods.

B) how to gain exports to other nations and enhance market share for imported

goods in domestic markets.

C) how to increase exports to other countries and how to increase imports from

other countries.

D) how to defend domestic markets against imported goods while minimizing

exports.

E) how to enhance imported goods in domestic markets and minimize exports to

other nations.

 

45) ________ exemplifies the complexity of relationships among the functional

areas of business.

A) Financial ratio analysis

B) Environmental scanning

C) External audit

D) Government audit

E) Distribution strategy

46) Which function of management includes all of those activities undertaken to

ensure actual operations conform to planned operations?

A) Controlling

B) Staffing

C) Planning

D) Motivating

E) Organizing

 

47) The first step in the controlling function of management is to

A) take corrective actions.

B) establish performance standards.

C) restrict breaks employees take.

D) measure individual and organizational performance.

E) evaluate expense reports.

 

48) Opportunity analysis is one of the basic functions of

A) computer information systems.

B) production/operations.

C) management.

D) marketing.

E) research and development.

 

49) ________ is not considered to be a function of marketing.

A) Market segmentation

B) Distribution

C) Marketing research

D) Customer analysis

E) Opportunity analysis

 

50) The Robinson-Patman Act affects a company’s

A) culture.

B) employee costs.

C) cost of products.

D) pricing methods.

E) trucking methods.

51) What category of ratios measures a firm’s ability to meet maturing short-term

obligations?

A) Leverage

B) Activity

C) Profitability

D) Growth

E) Liquidity

 

52) According to Roger Schroeder, which of the following is not a basic function

of production management?

A) Transportation

B) Inventory

C) Capacity

D) Workforce

E) Quality

 

53) Which country has the highest average hourly pay for auto workers?

A) Japan

B) Germany

C) Canada

D) France

E) U.S.

 

54) ________ has been successful in determining R&D budget allocations.

A) Financing as many project proposals as possible

B) Budgeting for R&D about what competitors spend

C) Using the percentage of sales method

D) Deciding how many successful new products are needed

E) All of the above have been used

 

55) Which of the following ties all business functions together and provides the basis for all managerial decisions?

A) Marketing

B) Management

C) Workforce

D) Information

E) Technology

56) Which of the following is the first step in developing an IFE Matrix?

A) Identifying the organization’s functions of business

B) Summing the weighted scores for each variable

C) Identifying the organization’s strengths and weaknesses

D) Determining the lead strategist

E) Determining the organization’s structure

 

57) The IFE Matrix should be ________ in multidivisional firms.

A) all-inclusive

B) constructed only for the major divisions

C) revised monthly

D) constructed for each division

E) developed before the EFE Matrix

 

58) Which of these strategies is effective when the number of suppliers is small and the number of competitors is large?

A) Conglomerate diversification

B) Forward integration

C) Backward integration

D) Concentric diversification

E) Horizontal diversification

 

59) Which strategy seeks to increase market share of present products or services in present markets through greater marketing efforts?

A) Backward integration

B) Market penetration

C) Forward integration

D) Market development

E) Product development

 

60) All of the following situations are conducive to market development except

A) when an organization competes in a high-growth industry.

B) when new untapped or unsaturated markets exist.

C) when an organization is very successful at what it does.

D) when an organization’s basic industry is becoming rapidly global in scope.

E) when an organization has excess production capacity.

61) Which strategy should an organization use if it competes in a no-growth or a slow-growth industry?

A) Backward integration

B) Retrenchment

C) Unrelated diversification

D) Related diversification

E) Divestiture

 

62) Which of the following is not an example of when an organization should use

an unrelated diversification strategy?

A) When revenues derived from an organization’s current products or services

would increase significantly by adding the new unrelated, products.

B) When the new products have counter-cyclical sales patterns compared to an

organization’s present products.

C) When an organization competes in a highly competitive and/or a no-growth

industry.

D) When an organization’s present channels of distribution can be used to mar-

ket the new products to current customers.

E) When the organization has a strong management team.

 

63) Which chapter of the bankruptcy code applies to municipalities?

A) Chapter 9

B) Chapter 12

C) Chapter 8

D) Chapter 13

E) Chapter 7

 

64) The Family Farmer Bankruptcy Act of 1986 created

A) Chapter 13.

B) Chapter 9.

C) Chapter 8.

D) Chapter 7.

E) Chapter 12.

 

65) Under which strategy would you offer products or services to a wide range of customers at the lowest price available on the market?

A) Low-cost

B) Differentiation

C) Best-value

D) Low-cost focus

E) Best-value focus

66) Under which condition would a differentiation strategy be especially effective?

A) When the industry has many different niches and segments, thereby allowing

a company to pick a competitively attractive niche suited to its own resourc-

es.

B) When technological change is fast paced and competition revolves around

rapidly evolving product features.

C) When few, if any, other rivals are attempting to specialize in the same target

segment.

D) When industry leaders do not consider the niche to be crucial to their own

success.

E) When the target market niche is large, profitable and growing

 

67) Which of the following is not a reason joint ventures fail?

A) The venture may benefit the partnering companies but may not benefit the

customers who then complain about poorer service or criticize the companies

in other ways.

B) The venture may begin to compete more with one of the partners than the

other.

C) Stakeholders from both partners are equally satisfied.

D) Managers who must collaborate daily in operating the venture are not in-

volved in forming or shaping the venture.

E) The venture may not be supported equally by both partners.

 

68) What was the largest acquisition completed in 2007?

A) CVS acquiring Caremark Rx

B) AT&T acquiring BellSouth Corp

C) Linde acquiring BOC Group

D) Johnson & Johnson acquiring Pjizen Consumer Healthcare

E) Porsche acquiring Volkswagon

 

69) Which section of the SWOT Matrix involves matching internal strengths with

external opportunities?

A) The ST cell

B) The WT cell

C) The WO cell

D) The SW cell

E) The SO cell

 

70) Which strategies aim at improving internal weaknesses by taking advantage of

external opportunities?

A) ST

B) WO

C) SO

D) WT

E) SW

 

71) How many cells are in a SWOT Matrix?

A) Eight

B) Nine

C) Two

D) Four

E) Six

 

72) Which of the following is not a step of a SWOT Matrix?

A) Match strengths with external opportunities and record the resultant SO strat-

egies in the appropriate cell.

B) List the firm’s key external threats.

C) Match internal weaknesses with external threats and record the resultant WT

strategies.

D) List the firm’s external opportunities.

E) List the firm’s external weaknesses.

 

73) Which of these is not a SPACE Matrix quadrant?

A) Aggressive

B) Defensive

C) Conservative

D) Competitive

E) Offensive

 

74) In the SPACE analysis, what does a (+6, +3) strategy profile portray?

A) A strong industry

B) A stable environment

C) A weak industry

D) An unstable environment

E) A weak financial position

 

75) For what type of company is the BCG Matrix ideal for analyzing?

A) All companies

B) Large companies

C) Companies with more than one division

D) Companies with annual sales of less than $1 million

E) Companies with annual sales greater than $1 million

 

76) An organization that has a low relative market share position and competes in

a slow-growth industry is referred to as a

A) dog.

B) star.

C) question mark.

D) cowboy.

E) cash cow.

 

77) According to the Grand Strategy Matrix, organizations in which .quadrant

have a strong competitive position but are in a slow-growth industry,

A) IV.

B) I.

D) V.

E) III.

 

78) The top row of a QSPM consists of alternative strategies derived from all of

these except

A) BCG Matrix.

B) CPM Matrix.

C) Space Matrix.

D) Grand Strategy Matrix.

E) IE Matrix.

 

79) How are objectives in the areas of profitability, growth and market share commonly established?

A) Geographic location

B) Customer groups

C) Business segment

D) Product

E) all of the above

 

80) _______ is not a major factor that commonly prohibits effective resource allocation.

A) Underprotection of resources

B) Lack of sufficient knowledge

C) Vague strategy targets

D) Reluctance to take risks

E) Organizational politics

81) Which approach for managing and resolving conflict involves exchanging

members of conflicting parties of that each can gain an appreciation of the

others point of view?

A) Resistance

B) Confrontation

C) Defusion

D) Avoidance

E) Compliance

 

82) Which approach for managing and resolving conflict involves playing down

differences between conflicting parties while accentuating similarities and

common interests?

A) Defusion

B) Resistance

C) Compliance

D) Avoidance

E) Confrontation

 

83) Why do changes in company strategy often require changes in the way an

organization is structured?

A) Structure dictates how resources will be obtained.

B) Structure dictates strategy.

C) Structure dictates how goals and objectives will be established.

D) Structure dictates how money is spent.

E) Structure dictates authority over projects.

 

84) What percentage of companies are reported to have some form of bonus plan?

A) 40 percent

B) 95 percent

C) 80 percent

D) 75 percent

E) 25 percent

 

85) Resistance to change can manifest itself through

A) filing unfounded grievances.

B) sabotaging production machines.

C) unwillingness to cooperate.

D) absenteeism.

E) all of the above

86) Which strategy could be best defined as an effective, multi-method technique of studying and altering a firm’s culture?

A) Delivering

B) Benchmarking

C) Educative change strategy

D) Triangulation

E) Process management

 

87) What percent of strategies formulated are successfully implemented?

A) Approximately 66 percent

B) Less than 10 percent

C) Between 40 to 60 percent

D) About 30 percent

E) More than 80 percent

 

88) Why is market segmentation an important variable in the strategy-implementation process?

A) Company strategies do not require increased sales through new markets and

products.

B) It allows a firm to minimize per-unit profits and per-segment sales.

C) It directly affects marketing mix variables.

D) It allows a firm to operate with no resources.

E) all of the above

 

89) Which of the following is (are) true about two different market segments?

A) They are most effective when a firm squats between two segments.

B) They are always in different geographic locations.

C) They are usually incompatible.

D) They usually require different marketing strategies.

E) They can usually be served with the same marketing strategy.

 

90) What is a central strategy-implementation technique that allows an organization to examine the expected results of various actions and approaches?

A) Financial budgeting

B) EPS/EBIT

C) External analysis

D) TOWS analysis

E) Projected financial statement analysis

91) Which of these is the most common type of budgeting time frame?

A) Annual

B) Monthly

C) Daily

D) Every decade

E) Quarterly

 

92) What is a limitation of using financial budgets?

A) They are sometimes used as instruments of tyranny.

B) They can become a substitute for objectives.

C) They can hide inefficiencies if done only on precedent.

D) They can be so detailed that they are cumbersome and expensive.

E) all of the above

 

93) What best describes how much a company is worth?

A) Static

B) Known only to the firm’s accountants

C) Explicit accounting standards

D) An exact science

E) An educated guess

 

94) What is the best definition of goodwill?

A) Value associated with benefits from environmental programs

B) Excess of current assets over liabilities

C) Value attached to the firms reputation

D) Premiums paid for acquisition

E) Excess of assets over liabilities

 

95) If success for one organizational department means failure for another department, then strategies may be

A) advantageous.

B) failures.

C) synergistic.

D) inconsistent.

E) inconsonant

 

96) Corrective actions are not needed when

A) changes have occurred in the firm’s internal strategic position.

B) the industry is slowing down.20 Final Examination Strategic Management

C) the firm is not progressing satisfactorily toward achieving stated objectives.

D) external and internal factors have not significantly changed.

E) competitive factors are on the rise.

 

97) What is the basis for quantitative financial evaluation?

A) Financial ratios

B) Reduction in costs

C) The EPS/EBIT Analysis

D) Present value analysis

E) Capital Asset Pricing Model

 

98) Corrective action should do all of the following except

A) improve internal weaknesses.

B) avoid external threats.

C) capitalize upon internal strengths.

D) strengthen an organization’s competitive position.

E) avoid external opportunities.

 

99) What aims to balance long term with short term concerns, financial with non-

financial concerns, and internal with external concerns?

A) Contingency planning

B) Measuring performance

C) reviewing Bases of Strategy

D) The Balanced Scorecard approach

E) Taking corrective action

 

100) Which type of auditors are specifically responsible for safeguarding the as-

sets of a company?

A) Research auditors

B) Government auditors

C) External auditors

D) Independent auditors

E) Internal auditors

                       
 

BAM560 Strategic Management Final Exam

 

 BAM560

Strategic Management

Strategic Management: Concepts and Cases

Strategic Management Final Examination

 

Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1) During what stage of strategic management are a firm’s specific internal strengths and weaknesses determined?

A) Feedback

B) Implementation

C) Goal-setting

D) Formulation

E) Evaluation

 

2) What step in the strategic development process involves mobilizing employees and managers to put strategies into action?

A) Implementing strategy

B) Formulating strategy

C) Strategy evaluation

D) Competitive advantage

E) Strategic advantage

 

3) Which phase of strategic management is called the action phase?

A) Strategy implementation

B) Strategy formulation

C) Allocating resources

D) Strategy evaluation

E) Measuring performance

 

4) ________ is not a strategy-implementation activity.

A) Devising policies

B) Establishing annual objectives

C) Taking corrective actions`

D) Motivating employees

E) Allocating resources

 

5) ________ and ________ are external forces transforming business and society

today.

A) Corporate culture; stakeholders

B) Stakeholders; strategy

C) E-commerce; strategy

D) E-commerce; globalization

E) Strategy; globalization

Strategic Management

Final Examination

2

6) In December 2006, online sales in the U.S. rose by

A) 150 percent.

B) 10 percent.

C) 100 percent.

D) 25 percent.

E) 50 percent.

 

7) The one factor that has most significantly impacted the nature and core of

buying and selling in nearly all industries has been

A) corporate greed.

B) customer and employee focus.

C) the government.

D) the Internet.

E) political borders.

 

8) Specific results an organization seeks to achieve in pursuing its basic mission

are

A) rules.

B) mission.

C) policies.

D) objectives.

E) strategies.

 

9) In which phase of strategic management are annual objectives especially important?

A) Implementation

B) Control

C) Evaluation

D) Formulation

E) Management

 

10) What are guides to decision making?

A) Laws

B) Procedures

C) Goals

D) Rules

E) Policies

 

11) The changes that occurred when Robert Iger took over the reigns at Disney,

demonstrate which current trend in organizations?

A) Increased emphasis on strategic planning

B) Increased structuring of strategic management

C) Increased decentralizing of strategic management

D) Increased formalization of the strategic management process

E) Increased central planning of the strategic management process

 

12) According to research, organizations using strategic management are

________ than those that do not.

A) more complex

B) more profitable

C) less profitable

D) less complex

E) less static

 

13) According to Greenley, strategic management offers all of these benefits except that

A) it provides an objective view of management problems.

B) it encourages a favorable attitude toward change.

C) it maximizes the effects of adverse conditions and changes.

D) it creates a framework for internal communication among personnel.

E) it gives a degree of discipline and formality to the management of a business.

 

14) What is not a reason given for poor or no strategic planning in organizations?

A) Fire-fighting

B) Trust of management

C) Poor reward structure

D) Wasting of time

E) Being content with success

 

15) Principles of conduct that guide decision-making are known as

A) social responsibility requirements.

B) business ethics.

C) human rights.

D) nonprofit organization policies.

E) the Constitution

 

16) Ethical standards come out of ________ in a final analysis.

A) history and heritage

B) competitors

C) community involvement

D) stakeholder analysis

E) government

 

17) All of these are potential disadvantages of an international operation except

A) reduced tariffs and taxes.

B) complexity due to a multiple monetary system.

C) overestimated weaknesses and underestimated strengths of competitors.

D) differing languages, cultures and value systems.

E) all of these are potential disadvantages.

 

18) Which of these basic questions should a vision statement answer?

A) Who are our competitors?

B) What is our business?

C) Who are our employees?

D) What do we want to become?

E) Why do we exist?

 

19) Who is referred to as “the father of modern management?”

A) Smith

B) Deming

C) Drucker

D) Peters

E) McGinnis

 

20) The mission statement answers which question?

A) How can we improve ourselves?

B) What do we want to become?

C) Who are our stakeholders?

D) What is our business?

E) How can we increase profitability?

 

21) The vision statement answers which question?

A) Who are our stakeholders?

B) What do we want to become?

C) What is our business?

D) How can we increase profitability?

E) How can we improve ourselves?

 

22) In the process of developing a mission statement, it is important to involve

A) the board of directors only.

B) upper-level management only.

C) as few managers as possible.

D) as many managers as possible.

E) lower-level management only.

 

23) What can be used to promote unbiased views and to manage the development

of the mission statement more effectively?

A) An internal group

B) Surveys

C) Command-and-control

D) A committee of managers

E) A facilitator

 

24) Business Week reports that firms using mission statements have ________

percent higher return on certain financial measures than those without such

statements.

A) 15

B) 57

C) 54

D) 10

E) 30

 

25) All stakeholders

A) have environmental concerns as their top priority.

B) have the same claims and concerns about an organization.

C) have ownership rights in an organization.

D) have the same voting rights in an organization.

E) have claims and concerns about an organization, but these claims and con-

cerns vary.

 

26) The three characteristics of a mission statement are a declaration of attitude,

a declaration of social policy and

A) a profit orientation.

B) an employee orientation.

C) a customer orientation.

D) a shareholder orientation.

E) an environmental orientation.

 

27) A proactive environmental policy is likely to lead to

A) numerous liability suits.

B) reduced customer loyalty.

C) conservation of energy.

D) higher medical costs.

E) higher cleanup costs.

 

28) What happened to sales of big-rig trucks as a result of new federal regulations on emissions?

A) Production increased by 40 percent

B) Production decreased by 40 percent

C) The change had no impact on production

D) Production increased by 50 percent

E) Production decreased by 50 percent

 

29) The corporate social policy should be reaffirmed or changed during which phase of strategy development?

A) Strategy evaluation

B) Strategy formulation

C) Strategy implementation

D) Strategic mission

E) Strategy control

 

30) Which of the following dimensions are not recommended aspects of a mission statement?

A) Customers

B) Concern for employees

C) Markets

D) Self-concept

E) Strategies

31) Effective mission statements

A) become ineffective in the first year.

B) never require revision.

C) are usually changed every few years.

D) stand the test of time and require little revision.

E) are usually changed every few months.

 

32) The process of performing an external audit needs to include

A) only top level managers, as it’s a planning function.

B) stockholders and external government agencies

C) between 15 to 20 managers for it to be valid

D) primarily front-line supervisors

E) as many managers and employees as possible.

 

33) What effect do trends in the dollar’s value have on companies in different  industries and in different locations?

A) Insignificant and unequal

B) No significant impact

C) Marginal and equal

D) Significant and unequal

E) Significant and equal

 

34) In general, what happens to American goods in overseas markets when there is a strong dollar?

A) Cheaper

B) More attractive

C) More expensive

D) Less expensive

E) Desirable

 

35) When an industry relies heavily on government contracts, which forecasts can be the most important part of an external audit?

A) Competitive

B) Economic

C) Multinational

D) Political

E) Technological8 Final Examination Strategic Management

36) Who is Japan’s largest trading partner?

A) China

B) Mexico

C) Germany

D) U.S.

E) U.K.

 

37) Technological advancements can create new ________ advantages that are

more powerful than existing advantages.

A) economic

B) social

C) competitive

D) comparative

E) environmental

 

38) Which sector of the economy would be most impacted by technological developments?

A) Paper

B) Forestry

C) Textiles

D) Metals

E) Pharmaceuticals

 

39) Keeping strategies secret from employees and stakeholders can do all of the following except

A) inhibit employee and stakeholder commitment.

B) forego valuable employee or stakeholder input.

C) provide competitive advantage to competitors.

D) inhibit employee and stakeholder communication.

E) inhibit employee and stakeholder understanding.

 

40) Intensity of competition ________ in lower-return industries.

A) is lowest

B) is not important

C) is highest

D) is non-existent

E) fluctuates Final Examination Strategic Management 9

41) Whenever new firms can easily enter a particular industry, the intensity of

competitiveness among firms

A) decreases.

B) increases.

C) fluctuates.

D) neutralizes.

E) stays the same.

 

42) What level of bargaining power do consumers have when the products being

purchased are standard or undifferentiated?

A) Marginal

B) High

C) Negative

D) Low

E) Not necessary

 

43) Because of the Internet, barriers to personal and business success are

A) acting like glass walls.

B) being eliminated.

C) lower.

D) significantly enhanced.

E) being built.

 

44) The international challenge faced by U.S. business is twofold

A) how to gain and maintain exports to other nations and how to defend domes-

tic markets against imported goods.

B) how to gain exports to other nations and enhance market share for imported

goods in domestic markets.

C) how to increase exports to other countries and how to increase imports from

other countries.

D) how to defend domestic markets against imported goods while minimizing

exports.

E) how to enhance imported goods in domestic markets and minimize exports to

other nations.

 

45) ________ exemplifies the complexity of relationships among the functional

areas of business.

A) Financial ratio analysis

B) Environmental scanning

C) External audit

D) Government audit

E) Distribution strategy

46) Which function of management includes all of those activities undertaken to

ensure actual operations conform to planned operations?

A) Controlling

B) Staffing

C) Planning

D) Motivating

E) Organizing

 

47) The first step in the controlling function of management is to

A) take corrective actions.

B) establish performance standards.

C) restrict breaks employees take.

D) measure individual and organizational performance.

E) evaluate expense reports.

 

48) Opportunity analysis is one of the basic functions of

A) computer information systems.

B) production/operations.

C) management.

D) marketing.

E) research and development.

 

49) ________ is not considered to be a function of marketing.

A) Market segmentation

B) Distribution

C) Marketing research

D) Customer analysis

E) Opportunity analysis

 

50) The Robinson-Patman Act affects a company’s

A) culture.

B) employee costs.

C) cost of products.

D) pricing methods.

E) trucking methods.

51) What category of ratios measures a firm’s ability to meet maturing short-term

obligations?

A) Leverage

B) Activity

C) Profitability

D) Growth

E) Liquidity

 

52) According to Roger Schroeder, which of the following is not a basic function

of production management?

A) Transportation

B) Inventory

C) Capacity

D) Workforce

E) Quality

 

53) Which country has the highest average hourly pay for auto workers?

A) Japan

B) Germany

C) Canada

D) France

E) U.S.

 

54) ________ has been successful in determining R&D budget allocations.

A) Financing as many project proposals as possible

B) Budgeting for R&D about what competitors spend

C) Using the percentage of sales method

D) Deciding how many successful new products are needed

E) All of the above have been used

 

55) Which of the following ties all business functions together and provides the basis for all managerial decisions?

A) Marketing

B) Management

C) Workforce

D) Information

E) Technology

56) Which of the following is the first step in developing an IFE Matrix?

A) Identifying the organization’s functions of business

B) Summing the weighted scores for each variable

C) Identifying the organization’s strengths and weaknesses

D) Determining the lead strategist

E) Determining the organization’s structure

 

57) The IFE Matrix should be ________ in multidivisional firms.

A) all-inclusive

B) constructed only for the major divisions

C) revised monthly

D) constructed for each division

E) developed before the EFE Matrix

 

58) Which of these strategies is effective when the number of suppliers is small and the number of competitors is large?

A) Conglomerate diversification

B) Forward integration

C) Backward integration

D) Concentric diversification

E) Horizontal diversification

 

59) Which strategy seeks to increase market share of present products or services in present markets through greater marketing efforts?

A) Backward integration

B) Market penetration

C) Forward integration

D) Market development

E) Product development

 

60) All of the following situations are conducive to market development except

A) when an organization competes in a high-growth industry.

B) when new untapped or unsaturated markets exist.

C) when an organization is very successful at what it does.

D) when an organization’s basic industry is becoming rapidly global in scope.

E) when an organization has excess production capacity.

61) Which strategy should an organization use if it competes in a no-growth or a slow-growth industry?

A) Backward integration

B) Retrenchment

C) Unrelated diversification

D) Related diversification

E) Divestiture

 

62) Which of the following is not an example of when an organization should use

an unrelated diversification strategy?

A) When revenues derived from an organization’s current products or services

would increase significantly by adding the new unrelated, products.

B) When the new products have counter-cyclical sales patterns compared to an

organization’s present products.

C) When an organization competes in a highly competitive and/or a no-growth

industry.

D) When an organization’s present channels of distribution can be used to mar-

ket the new products to current customers.

E) When the organization has a strong management team.

 

63) Which chapter of the bankruptcy code applies to municipalities?

A) Chapter 9

B) Chapter 12

C) Chapter 8

D) Chapter 13

E) Chapter 7

 

64) The Family Farmer Bankruptcy Act of 1986 created

A) Chapter 13.

B) Chapter 9.

C) Chapter 8.

D) Chapter 7.

E) Chapter 12.

 

65) Under which strategy would you offer products or services to a wide range of customers at the lowest price available on the market?

A) Low-cost

B) Differentiation

C) Best-value

D) Low-cost focus

E) Best-value focus

66) Under which condition would a differentiation strategy be especially effective?

A) When the industry has many different niches and segments, thereby allowing

a company to pick a competitively attractive niche suited to its own resourc-

es.

B) When technological change is fast paced and competition revolves around

rapidly evolving product features.

C) When few, if any, other rivals are attempting to specialize in the same target

segment.

D) When industry leaders do not consider the niche to be crucial to their own

success.

E) When the target market niche is large, profitable and growing

 

67) Which of the following is not a reason joint ventures fail?

A) The venture may benefit the partnering companies but may not benefit the

customers who then complain about poorer service or criticize the companies

in other ways.

B) The venture may begin to compete more with one of the partners than the

other.

C) Stakeholders from both partners are equally satisfied.

D) Managers who must collaborate daily in operating the venture are not in-

volved in forming or shaping the venture.

E) The venture may not be supported equally by both partners.

 

68) What was the largest acquisition completed in 2007?

A) CVS acquiring Caremark Rx

B) AT&T acquiring BellSouth Corp

C) Linde acquiring BOC Group

D) Johnson & Johnson acquiring Pjizen Consumer Healthcare

E) Porsche acquiring Volkswagon

 

69) Which section of the SWOT Matrix involves matching internal strengths with

external opportunities?

A) The ST cell

B) The WT cell

C) The WO cell

D) The SW cell

E) The SO cell

 

70) Which strategies aim at improving internal weaknesses by taking advantage of

external opportunities?

A) ST

B) WO

C) SO

D) WT

E) SW

 

71) How many cells are in a SWOT Matrix?

A) Eight

B) Nine

C) Two

D) Four

E) Six

 

72) Which of the following is not a step of a SWOT Matrix?

A) Match strengths with external opportunities and record the resultant SO strat-

egies in the appropriate cell.

B) List the firm’s key external threats.

C) Match internal weaknesses with external threats and record the resultant WT

strategies.

D) List the firm’s external opportunities.

E) List the firm’s external weaknesses.

 

73) Which of these is not a SPACE Matrix quadrant?

A) Aggressive

B) Defensive

C) Conservative

D) Competitive

E) Offensive

 

74) In the SPACE analysis, what does a (+6, +3) strategy profile portray?

A) A strong industry

B) A stable environment

C) A weak industry

D) An unstable environment

E) A weak financial position

 

75) For what type of company is the BCG Matrix ideal for analyzing?

A) All companies

B) Large companies

C) Companies with more than one division

D) Companies with annual sales of less than $1 million

E) Companies with annual sales greater than $1 million

 

76) An organization that has a low relative market share position and competes in

a slow-growth industry is referred to as a

A) dog.

B) star.

C) question mark.

D) cowboy.

E) cash cow.

 

77) According to the Grand Strategy Matrix, organizations in which .quadrant

have a strong competitive position but are in a slow-growth industry,

A) IV.

B) I.

D) V.

E) III.

 

78) The top row of a QSPM consists of alternative strategies derived from all of

these except

A) BCG Matrix.

B) CPM Matrix.

C) Space Matrix.

D) Grand Strategy Matrix.

E) IE Matrix.

 

79) How are objectives in the areas of profitability, growth and market share commonly established?

A) Geographic location

B) Customer groups

C) Business segment

D) Product

E) all of the above

 

80) _______ is not a major factor that commonly prohibits effective resource allocation.

A) Underprotection of resources

B) Lack of sufficient knowledge

C) Vague strategy targets

D) Reluctance to take risks

E) Organizational politics

81) Which approach for managing and resolving conflict involves exchanging

members of conflicting parties of that each can gain an appreciation of the

others point of view?

A) Resistance

B) Confrontation

C) Defusion

D) Avoidance

E) Compliance

 

82) Which approach for managing and resolving conflict involves playing down

differences between conflicting parties while accentuating similarities and

common interests?

A) Defusion

B) Resistance

C) Compliance

D) Avoidance

E) Confrontation

 

83) Why do changes in company strategy often require changes in the way an

organization is structured?

A) Structure dictates how resources will be obtained.

B) Structure dictates strategy.

C) Structure dictates how goals and objectives will be established.

D) Structure dictates how money is spent.

E) Structure dictates authority over projects.

 

84) What percentage of companies are reported to have some form of bonus plan?

A) 40 percent

B) 95 percent

C) 80 percent

D) 75 percent

E) 25 percent

 

85) Resistance to change can manifest itself through

A) filing unfounded grievances.

B) sabotaging production machines.

C) unwillingness to cooperate.

D) absenteeism.

E) all of the above

86) Which strategy could be best defined as an effective, multi-method technique of studying and altering a firm’s culture?

A) Delivering

B) Benchmarking

C) Educative change strategy

D) Triangulation

E) Process management

 

87) What percent of strategies formulated are successfully implemented?

A) Approximately 66 percent

B) Less than 10 percent

C) Between 40 to 60 percent

D) About 30 percent

E) More than 80 percent

 

88) Why is market segmentation an important variable in the strategy-implementation process?

A) Company strategies do not require increased sales through new markets and

products.

B) It allows a firm to minimize per-unit profits and per-segment sales.

C) It directly affects marketing mix variables.

D) It allows a firm to operate with no resources.

E) all of the above

 

89) Which of the following is (are) true about two different market segments?

A) They are most effective when a firm squats between two segments.

B) They are always in different geographic locations.

C) They are usually incompatible.

D) They usually require different marketing strategies.

E) They can usually be served with the same marketing strategy.

 

90) What is a central strategy-implementation technique that allows an organization to examine the expected results of various actions and approaches?

A) Financial budgeting

B) EPS/EBIT

C) External analysis

D) TOWS analysis

E) Projected financial statement analysis

91) Which of these is the most common type of budgeting time frame?

A) Annual

B) Monthly

C) Daily

D) Every decade

E) Quarterly

 

92) What is a limitation of using financial budgets?

A) They are sometimes used as instruments of tyranny.

B) They can become a substitute for objectives.

C) They can hide inefficiencies if done only on precedent.

D) They can be so detailed that they are cumbersome and expensive.

E) all of the above

 

93) What best describes how much a company is worth?

A) Static

B) Known only to the firm’s accountants

C) Explicit accounting standards

D) An exact science

E) An educated guess

 

94) What is the best definition of goodwill?

A) Value associated with benefits from environmental programs

B) Excess of current assets over liabilities

C) Value attached to the firms reputation

D) Premiums paid for acquisition

E) Excess of assets over liabilities

 

95) If success for one organizational department means failure for another department, then strategies may be

A) advantageous.

B) failures.

C) synergistic.

D) inconsistent.

E) inconsonant

 

96) Corrective actions are not needed when

A) changes have occurred in the firm’s internal strategic position.

B) the industry is slowing down.20 Final Examination Strategic Management

C) the firm is not progressing satisfactorily toward achieving stated objectives.

D) external and internal factors have not significantly changed.

E) competitive factors are on the rise.

 

97) What is the basis for quantitative financial evaluation?

A) Financial ratios

B) Reduction in costs

C) The EPS/EBIT Analysis

D) Present value analysis

E) Capital Asset Pricing Model

 

98) Corrective action should do all of the following except

A) improve internal weaknesses.

B) avoid external threats.

C) capitalize upon internal strengths.

D) strengthen an organization’s competitive position.

E) avoid external opportunities.

 

99) What aims to balance long term with short term concerns, financial with non-

financial concerns, and internal with external concerns?

A) Contingency planning

B) Measuring performance

C) reviewing Bases of Strategy

D) The Balanced Scorecard approach

E) Taking corrective action

 

100) Which type of auditors are specifically responsible for safeguarding the as-

sets of a company?

A) Research auditors

B) Government auditors

C) External auditors

D) Independent auditors

E) Internal auditors

                       
 

Complete the following exam by answering the questions and compiling your
answers into a word-processing document. When you’re ready to submit your
answers, refer to the instructions at the end of your exam booklet.

Part A: Answer each of the following questions in one or more complete
paragraphs. Each answer is worth 10 points.
1. Outline and explain the four steps of the career management process.
2. Describe and discuss the family friendly schemes that fall into the
category of other employer-provided benefits.
3. Briefly discuss the process of organizing a union, including the typical
strategies adopted by management and union representatives.
4. Compare the following employment interview approaches:
• Nondirective interview
• Structured interview
• Situational interview
• Behavioral descriptive interview
• Panel interview
Part B: Answer each of the following questions in about five to
seven sentences. Each answer is worth 6 points.
1. Summarize the right-to-work provisions of the Taft-Hartley Act and their
effects on organized labor in general.
2. Briefly describe the Fleishman Job Analysis System.
3. What is a transition matrix, and what is it used for?
4. Describe the Scanlon Plan.
5. Outline the emotional cycle typically experienced by employees who are
posted overseas.
6. Compare the advantages of internal hiring as opposed to external hiring.
7. In establishing pay structures, what is benchmarking and how is it
useful to human resource managers?
8. Explain the concepts of validity and reliability. Offer simple examples.
9. Compare the expectations and assumptions one finds in the traditional
psychological contract and the currently predominant psychological contract.
10. Describe the nature of a learning organization.

Human Resource Management Examination Number 41271700

Human Resource Management Examination Number 41271700

Complete the following exam by answering the questions and compiling your answers into a word-processing document. When you’re ready to submit your answers, refer to the instructions at the end of your exam booklet.

Part A: Answer each of the following questions in one or more complete paragraphs. Each answer is worth 10 points.
1. Outline and explain the four steps of the career management process.
2. Describe and discuss the family friendly schemes that fall into the category of other employer-provided benefits.
3. Briefly discuss the process of organizing a union, including the typical strategies adopted by management and union representatives.
4. Compare the following employment interview approaches:
• Nondirective interview
• Structured interview
• Situational interview
• Behavioral descriptive interview
• Panel interview
Part B: Answer each of the following questions in about five to
seven sentences. Each answer is worth 6 points.
1. Summarize the right-to-work provisions of the Taft-Hartley Act and their effects on organized labor in general.
2. Briefly describe the Fleishman Job Analysis System.
3. What is a transition matrix, and what is it used for?
4. Describe the Scanlon Plan.
5. Outline the emotional cycle typically experienced by employees who are posted overseas.
6. Compare the advantages of internal hiring as opposed to external hiring.
7. In establishing pay structures, what is benchmarking and how is it useful to human resource managers?
8. Explain the concepts of validity and reliability. Offer simple examples.
9. Compare the expectations and assumptions one finds in the traditional psychological contract and the currently predominant psychological contract.
10. Describe the nature of a learning organization.

Human Resource Management Examination Number 41271700

Complete the following exam by answering the questions and compiling your answers into a word-processing document. When you’re ready to submit your answers, refer to the instructions at the end of your exam booklet.

Part A: Answer each of the following questions in one or more complete paragraphs. Each answer is worth 10 points.
1. Outline and explain the four steps of the career management process.
2. Describe and discuss the family friendly schemes that fall into the category of other employer-provided benefits.
3. Briefly discuss the process of organizing a union, including the typical strategies adopted by management and union representatives.
4. Compare the following employment interview approaches:
• Nondirective interview
• Structured interview
• Situational interview
• Behavioral descriptive interview
• Panel interview
Part B: Answer each of the following questions in about five to
seven sentences. Each answer is worth 6 points.
1. Summarize the right-to-work provisions of the Taft-Hartley Act and their effects on organized labor in general.
2. Briefly describe the Fleishman Job Analysis System.
3. What is a transition matrix, and what is it used for?
4. Describe the Scanlon Plan.
5. Outline the emotional cycle typically experienced by employees who are posted overseas.
6. Compare the advantages of internal hiring as opposed to external hiring.
7. In establishing pay structures, what is benchmarking and how is it useful to human resource managers?
8. Explain the concepts of validity and reliability. Offer simple examples.
9. Compare the expectations and assumptions one finds in the traditional psychological contract and the currently predominant psychological contract.
10. Describe the nature of a learning organization.

Select, as a team, one creative thinker who changed the way people saw
and/or experienced the world.
Summarize, in 350 to 500 words, this individual’s contributions and make a
solid argument for why he or she should be included in any list of
important creative thinkers.
Include a brief comparison to the thinkers your team members selected for
their individual assignments this week: Do they share similar creative
processes and/or environments?

Creative Thinker – Abraham Lincoln

Creative Thinker – Abraham Lincoln

Select, as a team, one creative thinker who changed the way people saw and/or experienced the world.
Summarize, in 350 to 500 words, this individual's contributions and make a solid argument for why he or she should be included in any list of important creative thinkers.
Include a brief comparison to the thinkers your team members selected for their individual assignments this week: Do they share similar creative processes and/or environments?

Creative Thinker – Abraham Lincoln

Select, as a team, one creative thinker who changed the way people saw and/or experienced the world.
Summarize, in 350 to 500 words, this individual's contributions and make a solid argument for why he or she should be included in any list of important creative thinkers.
Include a brief comparison to the thinkers your team members selected for their individual assignments this week: Do they share similar creative processes and/or environments?

Select two individuals who are famous for their creative ideas (one from
each column).

Research their biographies in the University Library and/or on the Internet.

Create and Present a 10 – 15 slide presentation to include the following:

• Information about each of the thinker’s unique contributions to society

• The problems or issues that their ideas sought to solve

• A description of the solutions and how his or her ideas were implemented

• Each thinker’s personal/ social/ political environments and how you think
these factors contributed to their creativity

• The creative process of each thinker, including any obstacles they faced,
and a comparison of the creative processes underlying each individual’s work

• A critique of their ideas: could they have done anything differently? How
did their work fit into the existing framework of understanding in their
field, and how did it advance further understanding of the field?

Steven Spielberg and Grace Hopper

Famous Creative Thinkers