HCS405 Week-2 Discussion

Question-1

What are the largest expense categories incurred by health care service organizations?

Question-2

Mission Statements

Question-3

CVP Analysis

Question-4

Week-2 Overview

Question-5

As an employee, what revenue information do you need, and why is accuracy of this information important to you?

Question-6

How does Medicare reimburse hospitals for:

a. Inpatient stays

b. Physician services

Question-7

Watch “How to Decipher Accrual Accounting” and review additional resources on the Investopedia website.

BU330C Assignment 8

Assignment 08

BU330 Accounting for Managers

Directions:  Be sure to make an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading.

 

Financial Statement Analysis

 

The following information relates to Harris Corporation.

 

Account	Current year	Prior year
Net sales (all credit)	$520,125	$499,500
Cost of goods sold	$375,960	$353,600
Gross profit	$144,165	$145,900
Income from operations	$ 95,500	$ 79,900
Interest expense	$ 23,500	$ 19,500
Net income	$ 57,600	$ 51,600
Cash	$ 30,600	$ 15,900
Accounts receivable, net	$ 33,800	$ 23,200
Inventory	$ 42,000	$ 30,300
Prepaid expenses	$ 2,000	$ 1,500
Total current assets	$ 108,400	$ 70,900
Total long-term assets	$ 62,000	$ 38,000
Total current liabilities	$ 46,000	$ 41,600
Total long-term liabilities	$ 20,000	$ 22,700
Common stock, no par, 3,000 shares, value $50/share	$ 30,000	$ 30,000

 

Required:

 

a.       What is the acid-test ratio for the current year?

b.      What is the inventory turnover for the current year?

c.       What is days' sales in receivables for the current year?

d.      What is the book value per share of common stock for the current year?

e.       What is the price-earnings ratio for the current year?

f.       What is the rate of return on total assets for the current year?

g.      What is the times-interest-earned ratio for the current year?

h.      What is the current ratio for the current year?

 

 

BU330C Assignment 4

Assignment 04

BU330 Accounting for Managers

Directions:  Be sure to make an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading.

 

Factoring resource constraints into product mix decisions

 

Rose Incorporated manufactures two types of vases, small and large. The following per-unit data are available.

 

                                                                  Small Vase     Large Vase

Sale price                                                       $60                $100

Variable costs                                                $35                  $60

Machine hours required for 1 vase                   1                       2

 

Total fixed costs are $600,000, and Rose Incorporated can sell a maximum of 25,000 units of each type of vase annually. Machine hour capacity is 50,000 hours per year.

 

a.       Determine the contribution margin per unit for each type of vase.

b.      Determine the contribution margin per machine hour for each type of vase.

c.       Determine the number of units of each style of vase that Rose Incorporated should produce to maximize operating income.

d.      What is the dollar amount of the maximum operating income as calculated in C above?

 

C06 Week 3 Threaded Discussion

“Locke’s views on property, Smith’s views on free markets, and Marx’s views on capitalism obviously do not hold true when applied to the organizational structure and the operations of modern corporations.” Comment on this statement.

(239 words)

 

                     

EN 130_Assignment_04

Assignment 04

EN130 English Composition II

Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

 

Using what you’ve learned in Lessons 1 and 2, as well as Lesson 4, write a well-developed process analysis essay on one of the following topics:

 

4  Describe and analyze steps toward increased self-esteem.

4  Explain how to find employment after college graduation.

4  Explain how to select and care for adopted shelter pets.

4  Explain how to write a résumé or college application essay.

4  Explain how to prepare a favorite dish.

4  Explain and describe the different kinds of learning styles.

 

You may use outside sources if you document them using APA format, or you may write this essay based entirely on your knowledge/experience.

C06I Assignment 4

ASSIGNMENT 04

C06I Business Ethics

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

 

Respond to the items below.

 

1.      Define the following: a right, a legal right, a moral right, a human right. How are they related?

 

2.      What three (3) features define a moral right?

 

3.      How do we know that people have rights? What is the basis of the moral rights according to a utilitarian view? According to Immanuel Kant?

 

4.      Fully discuss the idea that human beings have a “natural right” to liberty and a “natural right” to private property, as claimed by John Locke (1632-1704).

 

                     

C06 Online Exam 5_08 SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1

The common definition of price fixing is __________.

  A.  when companies agree to set prices artificially high 

  B.  when companies agree to limit production 

  C.  when a company sells a buyer certain goods only on condition that the buyer also purchases other goods from the firm 

  D.  when companies agree to limit production

Question 2

Which government law is the most important legislation that protects markets from price fixing?

  A.  Interstate Commerce Act 

  B.  Clayton Act 

  C.  Sherman Antitrust Act 

  D.  Tobacco Trust Act

Question 3

In a perfectly free competitive market, __________.

  A.  no buyer or seller has the power to significantly affect the price of a good 

  B.  the most influential buyers or sellers have the power to affect the price of a good 

  C.  the majority of buyers or sellers have the power to affect the price of a good 

  D.  only buyers have the power to significantly affect the price of a good

Question 4

What is the most obvious failure of monopoly markets?

  A.  the damage to the environment 

  B.  the high prices they allow the monopoly companies to charge 

  C.  the inequalities between employees and executives 

  D.  monopoly markets have no real failures

Question 5

An oil company is expanding, but no new oil fields are available. They therefore must resort to the expensive and less-efficient practice of extracting petroleum from oil sands. This is known as __________.  

  A.  the principle of increasing marginal cost 

  B.  the principle of gross marginal utility 

  C.  the principle of diminishing marginal utility 

  D.  the principle of increasing marginal utility

Question 6

Which of the following is the term for a situation in which manufacturers sell to firms only if the firms charge a certain price for the goods?  

  A.  retail price maintenance agreements 

  B.  bid rigging 

  C.  exclusive dealing arrangements 

  D.  price discrimination

Question 7

Monopolistic markets and their high prices and profits violate capitalist justice. Why?

  A.  Monopolies are much like communism. 

  B.  Buyers will not pay high prices, so the monopoly will fail. 

  C.  Charging high prices is an unsustainable business model. 

  D.  The seller charges more than the goods are worth; therefore, the prices are unjust.

Question 8

In a perfectly free economy, all buyers and sellers are what?

  A.  utility users 

  B.  utility creators 

  C.  utility maximizers 

  D.  utility diminishers

Question 9

What is necessary for free competitive markets?

  A.  an enforceable private property system 

  B.  government regulations 

  C.  fair prices 

  D.  a physical place to do business

Question 10

Which of the following is the term for a situation in which firms agree to sell only to customers in specific territories or to specific demographics?

  A.  market allocation 

  B.  bid rigging 

  C.  exclusive dealing arrangements 

  D.  tying arrangements

Question 11

Which of the following is the term for a situation in which firms limit their output?

  A.  market allocation 

  B.  bid rigging 

  C.  exclusive dealing arrangements 

  D.  manipulation of supply

Question 12

In a perfectly competitive market, what is the equilibrium point?

  A.  the point at which the sellers can produce the largest quantity, and the highest price at which the sellers can make a profit 

  B.  the point at which the sellers can produce the lowest quantity for the highest price at which buyers are willing to pay 

  C.  the point at which the quantity buyers want to buy equals that which sellers want to sell 

  D.  the point at which the quantity buyers want to buy equals that which sellers want to sell, and the highest price at which buyers are willing to pay equals the lowest price sellers are willing to sell at

Question 13

Which of the following are characteristics of a perfectly free economy?

  A.  There are numerous buyers and sellers, none of whom has a substantial share of the market. 

  B.  All buyers and sellers can freely and immediately enter or leave the market. 

  C.  Every buyer and seller has full and perfect knowledge of what every other buyer and seller is doing, including knowledge of the prices, quantities, and quality of all goods being bought and sold. 

  D.  All the above

Question 14

Which of the following is NOT a feature of a perfectly competitive free market?

  A.  All buyers and sellers are utility maximizers. 

  B.  Buyers and sellers do not have knowledge of what every other buyer and seller is doing. 

  C.  Goods being sold in the market are extremely similar. 

  D.  No external parties regulate the price.

Question 15

Efficiency comes about in perfectly competitive free markets when __________.

  A.  firms are motivated to invest resources in industries with a high consumer demand and move away from industries where demand is low 

  B.  firms are encouraged to minimize the resources they consume to produce a commodity and to use the most efficient technologies 

  C.  commodities are distributed among buyers such that buyers receive the most satisfying commodities they can purchase, given what is available to them and the amount they have to spend 

  D.  all the above

Question 16

What is a horizontal merger?

  A.  when a company unifies operations with its suppliers and distributors 

  B.  when a company joins with another company in another market to cross-sell their goods 

  C.  when two companies in the same market join together instead of competing 

  D.  when a company splits into two to better specialize in their markets

Question 17

When do prices in perfectly competitive markets drive resources away?

  A.  when demand is high 

  B.  when demand is low 

  C.  when there is a surplus of resources 

  D.  when there is a shortage of resources

Question 18

What is the “network effect” barrier to entry into a market?

  A.  when the value of a product goes down as the number of users increases 

  B.  when a product becomes more difficult to supply as the number of users increases 

  C.  when the value of a product goes up as the number of users increases 

  D.  when the value of a product goes up as the number of users decreases

Question 19

When a company sells a buyer certain goods only on condition that the buyer also purchases other goods from the firm, this is known as __________.

  A.  manipulation of supply 

  B.  exclusive dealing arrangements 

  C.  price discrimination 

  D.  tying arrangement

Question 20

Which of the following is the term for a situation in which a firm only sells a certain good if the buyer purchases another good?

  A.  tying arrangements 

  B.  incentivization 

  C.  exclusive dealing arrangements 

  D.  predatory price discrimination

Question 21

“If you cut down a tree, plant a tree” is an example of what?

  A.  precautionary principle 

  B.  conservation based on justice to future generations 

  C.  ecocentrism 

  D.  anthropocentrism

Question 22

Current estimates suggest that to halt increase in levels of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, we would have to reduce emissions by what percentage?

  A.  80-90% 

  B.  10-20% 

  C.  60-70% 

  D.  5-10%

Question 23

What is Blackstone’s theory of environmental rights?

  A.  All organisms have a right to life, and we have a duty to protect their environment. 

  B.  Humans have a duty to ensure a livable environment because we each have a right to a livable environment. 

  C.  Environmental protection is necessary for the continuation of the species, and all other concerns are secondary. 

  D.  The only way to protect the environment is through political change.

Question 24

The undesirable and unintended contamination of the environment because of the manufacture or use of commodities is commonly referred to as __________.

  A.  resource depletion 

  B.  pollution 

  C.  degradation 

  D.  contamination

Question 25

Acid rain is caused by __________.  

  A.  global warming 

  B.  fossil fuels 

  C.  airborne toxins 

  D.  none of the above

Question 26

How much do the needs of future generations affect current prices?

  A.  They hardly affect current prices. 

  B.  They have some influence on current prices. 

  C.  Current prices are based upon the demand expected of future generations. 

  D.  They influence new market prices only.

Question 27

What is the term for the view that protecting the environment is important because it harms human beings?

  A.  ecocentrism 

  B.  anthropocentrism 

  C.  exocentrism 

  D.  biocentrism

Question 28

When is the hole in the stratospheric ozone layer over the Antarctic expected to recover?

  A.  between 2060 and 2075 

  B.  between 2016 and 2020 

  C.  between 2100 and 2200 

  D.  never

Question 29

What is one reason why businesses were able to ignore their effects on the environment for so long?

  A.  Businesses tend to view the effects of their activities as negligible and ignore them. 

  B.  Governments had no way to stop them. 

  C.  Businesses did not know they were polluting. 

  D.  Businesses used bribes for many years as incentives to government to ignore the effects

Question 30

The saving or rationing of natural resources for later use is referred to as __________.

  A.  evolution 

  B.  ecology 

  C.  planned deletion 

  D.  conservation

Question 31

Which of the following can occur as a result of global warming?

  A.  famine 

  B.  floods 

  C.  drought 

  D.  all of the above

Question 32

What is a good way for a business to determine the level of pollution control/removal?

  A.  Survey public opinion to find out what people think is a good amount. 

  B.  Consult with environmental scientists to determine the effects of the pollution. 

  C.  Do a cost-benefit analysis to determine the cost of removal versus benefits of removal. 

  D.  Remove all pollution, because zero pollution is achievable with enough cost.

Question 33

Each human generates __________ of garbage each day.

  A.  45 pounds 

  B.  14.5 pounds 

  C.  4.5 pounds 

  D.  none of the above

Question 34

Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?  

  A.  carbon dioxide 

  B.  methane 

  C.  nitrogen 

  D.  nitrous oxide

Question 35

Why should we protect the environment, according to ecological ethics?

  A.  for our future generations to enjoy 

  B.  to prevent the depletion of our resources 

  C.  for the sake of the environment itself 

  D.  for the preservation of our species

Question 36

How does carbon dioxide contribute to global warming?

  A.  It is less dense, leaving less space in the atmosphere for oxygen. 

  B.  It absorbs heat from the sun, preventing it from escaping into space. 

  C.  It is created during combustion, which is an exothermic process that collectively heats up the earth. 

  D.  Carbon dioxide does not contribute to global warming.

Question 37

Because our environment is so complex and its parts are so interwoven, many theorists believe that our duty to protect the environment extends beyond the welfare of humans to other nonhuman parts of the system. This idea is called __________.

  A.  ecological ethics or deep ecology 

  B.  conservation ethics 

  C.  survival ethics 

  D.  none of the above

Question 38

Ozone depletion is a serious threat to our survival; which gases are extremely harmful to the ozone layer?

  A.  carbon dioxide 

  B.  nitrogen 

  C.  chlorofluorocarbons 

  D.  hydrocarbons

Question 39

How much natural gas is the Green Valley estimated to have?

  A.  enough to support the entire world for a year 

  B.  enough to support the entire world for 10 years 

  C.  enough to support the entire nation for a year 

  D.  enough to support the entire nation for a month

Question 40

What are the two main threats to the environment?

  A.  first-world countries and capitalism 

  B.  first-world countries and overpopulation 

  C.  overpopulation and pollution 

  D.  pollution and resource depletion

HCS405 r10 Week-5 Future Issues in Health Care Funding

Write a 500- to 700-word paper that discusses what impact technology and finance have on a health care manager.

Include the following in your paper:

• Explain what impact technology has on a health care manager.
• Explain what impact finance has on a health care manager.
• Explain what impact the federal and state government in health care have on health care and the health care manager.

  

EN130 Online Exam 2_03 SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1 

During research for an essay, when should you write down information about the source and its location?

  A.  As soon as you locate any source you may use in your essay 

  B.  As soon as you’re sure you’ll use the source 

  C.  After completing the first draft of your paper 

  D.  After outlining your proposed essay 

Question 2 

According to Tardiff and Brizee, an essay that makes a claim supported by evidence is classified as an _______ essay.

  A.  expository 

  B.  analytical 

  C.  argumentative 

  D.  explanatory 

Question 3 

The essence of _______ is to make sure you convey the meaning of an author’s words using your own words.

  A.  paraphrasing 

  B.  citation 

  C.  quotation 

  D.  summarizing 

Question 4 

Amy and Carl are discussing the essay by Tardiff and Brizee. Amy argues that her essay on how the cocoa bean is processed into chocolate should be considered an explanatory essay. Carl remarks that her essay might be called an expository essay. Who is correct?

  A.  Amy is correct, and Carl is incorrect. 

  B.  Both Amy and Carl are correct. 

  C.  Carl is correct, and Amy is incorrect. 

  D.  Neither Amy nor Carl is correct. 

Question 5 

With respect to transitional words or phrases in an essay, which transition is most likely to be used in showing consequences?

  A.  With few exceptions 

  B.  In the meantime 

  C.  For example 

  D.  As a result 

Question 6 

In your online text, you’re told that your thesis statement shouldn’t include words or phrases such as “I think,” “I believe,” or “In my opinion.” Why should you avoid such words or phrases in your thesis statement?

  A.  If your thesis statement is written in this way, readers will assume you haven’t done research. 

  B.  Typical readers don’t care what you think or believe, only what you can prove. 

  C.  If your thesis statement is written properly, the reader will know that the ideas are yours. 

  D.  A thesis statement should express facts, not opinions or beliefs. 

Question 7 

After you’ve completed an essay, what’s the first thing you should do to add finishing touches?

  A.  Read the essay from front to back as you would read someone else’s essay. 

  B.  Read it out loud to a friend. 

  C.  Set it aside for a time in order to come back to it with fresh eyes. 

  D.  Make sure your sentences follow a logical sequence. 

Question 8 

Regarding prewriting options, which statement is true?

  A.  You must begin by preparing a topic outline. 

  B.  A first draft must be the basis for a topic outline. 

  C.  Most students choose to write a first draft instead of an outline. 

  D.  Most students choose to begin with a topic outline instead of a first draft. 

Question 9 

A strong thesis statement features all of the following characteristics except for which one?

  A.  It’s specific to the topic. 

  B.  It expresses no more than three main ideas. 

  C.  It takes a stand supported by evidence. 

  D.  It encourages and justifies debate and discussion. 

Question 10 

In a paragraph in an essay, I use these transitions: all in all, at last, on balance, by and large, in the long run, in any event, ultimately. What is the most likely purpose of this paragraph?

  A.  To show cause and effect 

  B.  To present a comparison or contrast 

  C.  To summarize 

  D.  To generalize 

Question 11 

In harvesting sources, an excellent way both to narrow down a topic and discover a likely working thesis is to explore _______ the topic.

  A.  different attitudes about 

  B.  radical ideas about 

  C.  classic literature on 

  D.  different perspectives on 

Question 12 

In general, what is the best time to proof an essay for grammar, spelling, and mechanics?

  A.  After completing your first draft 

  B.  While completing your first draft 

  C.  While you’re writing your final draft 

  D.  After you complete, revise, and edit your final draft 

Question 13 

Which transition is most likely to be used in showing sequence?

  A.  Additionally 

  B.  In other words 

  C.  To begin with 

  D.  Consequently 

Question 14 

Which of the following is not a good way to narrow down and choose a topic?

  A.  Choose a topic that interests you. 

  B.  Choose topics that are not beyond your current knowledge. 

  C.  Avoid topics that already get lots of attention, such as dieting. 

  D.  Avoid topics derived from breaking news. 

Question 15 

Which thesis statement is the strongest?

  A.  The most effective way to create jobs, in my opinion, is through government-supported programs aimed at renewing the nation’s infrastructure. 

  B.  I think the most effective way to create jobs is through government-supported programs aimed at renewing the nation’s infrastructure. 

  C.  The most effective way to create jobs is through government-supported programs aimed at renewing the nation’s infrastructure. 

  D.  I strongly believe that the most effective way to create jobs is through government-supported programs aimed at renewing the nation’s infrastructure. 

Question 16 

Henry and Lois are discussing ways to evaluate sources. Henry maintains that one should scan a source before skimming it. Lois argues that scanning is the best first step in evaluating a source. Who is correct?

  A.  Henry is correct. 

  B.  Lois is correct. 

  C.  Both are correct. 

  D.  Neither is correct. 

Question 17 

Which statement is correct?

  A.  Once you write a thesis statement, don’t change it. 

  B.  A thesis statement is the first thing you should write before drafting an essay. 

  C.  Feel free to change a thesis statement if you feel you can improve it. 

  D.  If you change your thesis statement, you must reorganize all your body paragraphs. 

Question 18 

While researching a topic, online or in print, any of the following may be an indicator of reliability except for which one?

  A.  The author or authors are experts in a particular field. 

  B.  The author’s topic is similar to your selected topic. 

  C.  The author evaluates both sides of an issue. 

  D.  The author has sound credentials. 

Question 19 

The word “journal” is derived from the French word for

  A.  diary. 

  B.  day. 

  C.  daily. 

  D.  data. 

Question 20 

Regarding typical development stages in writing a paper using sources, which sequence is correct?

  A.  Research; outlining; analysis; prewriting; working thesis 

  B.  Research; analysis; working thesis; prewriting; outlining 

  C.  Research; analysis; prewriting; outlining; working thesis 

  D.  Research; prewriting; outlining; working thesis; analysis 

 

BU350C Assignment 8

ASSIGNMENT 08

BU350 Organizational Behavior

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

 

Part A

 

1.      Describe three (3) organizational approaches toward managing stress, providing one (1) original example of each.

2.      Describe three (3) individual approaches toward managing stress, providing one (1) original example of each.

 

Part B

 

Step 1: Create an organization chart for a company.

 

Create an organization chart for the company that you currently work for, or for a company that you have worked for in the past. Alternatively, create an organization chart for a company that a friend or family member currently works for or a company they have worked for in the past.

Step 2: Answer the following questions.

 

Using the chart you created answer the following questions.

 

1. What type of organizational structure is used for this organization?
2. Describe two (2) ways that the organization's design affects relationships with external companies.
3. Describe two (2) advantages and two (2) disadvantages that the organization might experience based on its structure.
4. Describe one (1) way that the roles of managers and supervisors are impacted by the organization's design.
5. Describe two (2) changes you would make if you were to redesign the organization to make the organization more efficient.